Immunology MCQs [5618] PDF

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Immunology MCQs 1. Fixed phagocytes of the epidermis are called a. Lysozymes b. Goblet cells c. Kupferr cells d. Dendritic cells 2. Mucus-secreting membranes are found in a. Urinary system b. Digestive cavity c. Respiratory passages d. All of the above 3. The complement system involves a. The production of antigens and antibodies b. Serum proteins involved in nonspecific defence c. A set of genes that distinguish foreign cells from body cells d. The elimination of undigested remnants of microorganisms 4. The alternate pathway a. Involves factors B,D and properdin b. Involves the cleavage of C5 to form C9 c. Is more efficient than the classical pathway d. Involves recognition of antigens bound to specific antibodies 5. Complement must be inactivated because if it were not a. Viruses could continue to multiply inside host cells using host’s own metabolic machinery b. Necessary interferons would not be produced c. Protein synthesis would be inhibited thus halting important cell processes d. It would make holes in the body’s own cells

6. The type of interferon present late in an infection is a. Alpha interferon b. Beta interferon c. Gamma interferon d. Delta interferon

7. Interferons a. Do not protect the cell that secretes them b. Stimulate the activity of neutrophils c. Cause muscle aches, chills and fever

d. All of the above

8. In which of the following choices are events in the correct order? a. The formation of MAC (membrane attack complexes), holes in the pathogen’s cell membrane, a cascade of reactions, the binding of C1 b. The binding of C1, a cascade of reactions, the formation of MAC, holes in the pathogen’s cell membrane c. A cascade of reactions, the binding of C1, the formation of MAC, , holes in the pathogen’s cell membrane d. The binding of C1, a cascade of reactions, holes in the pathogen’s cell membrane, the formation of MAC

9. Toll-like receptors (TLRs) act to a. Bind microbial proteins and polysaccharides b. Induce phagocytosis c. Cause phagocytic chemotaxis d. Destroy microbial cells

10. Which of the following binds iron? a. Lactoferrin b. Siderophores c. Transferrin d. All of the above

11. All of the following are associated with protection of the skin EXCEPT: A. lysozyme B. Sebum C. Complement D. All of these help protect the skin 12. Which of the following cells is responsible for mucus secretion in the respiratory system? A. goblet cells B. granulocytes C. macrophages D. platelets

13. All of the following activities are associated with the normal microbiota EXCEPT: A. secretion of antimicrobial substances. B. stimulation of defence mechanisms. C. phagocytosis of invaders. D. competition for nutrients. 14. Lysozyme is found in all of the following secretions EXCEPT: A. vaginal secretions. B. tears. C. urine. D. saliva. 15. All of the following are associated with the body's second line of defense EXCEPT: A. antimicrobial chemicals. B. cells. C. barriers. D. defensive processes. 16. All of the following are examples of fixed macrophages EXCEPT: A. Kupffer cells. B. alveolar macrophages. C. microglia. D. All of these are examples of fixed macrophages. 17. Toll-like receptors recognize A. antimicrobial peptides. B. microbial chemicals. C. antibodies. D. complement proteins.

18. Which of the following types of granulocytes can phagocytize pathogens? A. eosinophils B. basophils C. neutrophils D. Both A and C are correct. E. A, B, and C are correct. 19. An abnormal amount of which of the following cells is indicative of helminth infestation? A. platelets B. eosinophil C. NK cells D. macrophage 20. M protein, a virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes, directly interferes with which of the following steps of phagocytosis? A. elimination B. adherence C. digestion D. chemotaxis 21. Which of the following is an important defense against virus-infected cells and cancer cells? A. NK (Natural Killer) cells B. monocytes C. neutrophils D. Kupffer cells 22. All of the following are true statements concerning complement EXCEPT: A. Complement proteins can trigger inflammation and fever. B. The product of each reaction in the complement cascade is an enzyme that catalyzes the next reaction. C. Only the classical pathway of complement results in formation of the MAC. D. The alternate pathway of complement is useful in the early stages of infection.

23. Megakaryocytes are large cells that give rise to which of the following formed elements of blood? A. platelets B. leukocytes C. erythrocytes D. lymphocytes 24. Which of the following is also known as macrophage activation factor? A. alpha interferon B. beta interferon C. gamma interferon D. delta interferon 25. All of the following are aspects of inflammation EXCEPT: A. dilation of blood vessels. B. an increase in metabolic rate. C. tissue repair. D. migration of phagocytes. 26. All of the following are chemicals that provoke early events in inflammation EXCEPT: A. leukotrienes. B. histamine. C. prostaglandins. D. pyrogens. 27. Pus is associated with which of the following? A. complement B. inflammation C. interferon D. fever

28. The edema associated with inflammation is a direct result of the activity of which of the following? A. interleukin-1 B. fibroblasts C. C3a and C5a D. prostaglandins 29. Which of the following types of cell is able to create webs of extracellular fibers that help kill a variety of microbes? A. eosinophils B. platelets C. NK cells D. neutrophils 30. All of the following are thought to be beneficial aspects of fever EXCEPT: A. denaturation of proteins. B. inhibition of microbial growth. C. stimulation of tissue repair. D. increased activity of immune cells. 31. All of the following are characteristics of effective antigens EXCEPT: A. stable molecules B. simple molecules C. composed of proteins or glycoproteins D. large molecular weight 32. How does penicillin trigger allergy in some people? A. It becomes attached to a hapten in the blood. B. The body metabolizes it into other molecules that act as antigens. C. It stays in the circulation too long. D. It is a very large molecule.

33. Where are autoantigens found? A. virus-infected cells B. bacterial cells C. normal body cells D. immune cells 34. All of the following are components of the lymphatic system EXCEPT: A. the liver. B. stem cells. C. the spleen. D. the thymus. 35. All of the following are characteristics of lymphatic vessels EXCEPT they: A. are extremely permeable. B. are associated with lymph nodes. C. have one-way valves. D. flow away from the heart. 36. Hepatitis C virus disables the immune response against itself by interfering with the production of A. tumor necrosis factor. B. interferon. C. antibodies. D. CD4 cells. 37. Plasma cells belong to which of the following groups of cells? A. helper T cells B. B cells C. macrophages D. cytotoxic T cells

38. One variable region of an antibody is composed of A. 2 heavy and 2 light chains. B. 2 light chains. C. 1 heavy and 1 light chain. D. 2 heavy chains. 39. Prevention of a virus' attachment to its target cell is an antibody function known as A. apoptosis. B. neutralization. C. agglutination. D. opsonization. 40. Which of the following classes of antibodies has an unknown function? A. IgA B. IgG C. IgD D. IgE 41. Which of the following classes of antibodies is transferred to newborns through the mother's breast milk? A. IgA B. IgD C. IgG D. IgM 42. Which of the following types of cells is depleted during HIV infection? A. helper T cell B. cytotoxic T cell C. suppressor T cell D. memory B cell

43. All of the following are examples of cytokines EXCEPT: A. interferons. B. perforins. C. tumor necrosis factors. D. chemokines. 44. Lymphocyte editing occurs in which of the following sites? A. bone marrow B. thymus C. spleen D. Both A and B are correct. E. A, B and C are correct. 45. All of the following are true statements concerning MHC EXCEPT: A. MHC allows the body to distinguish between self and nonself. B. MHC proteins control the recognition of antigens by B cells. C. If an antigen cannot bind to an MHC molecule, it will not trigger an immune response. D. There are two classes of MHC proteins. 46. Class I MHC molecules are found on which of the following types of cells? A. B cells B. helper T cells C. all nucleated cells D. Both A and B are correct. E. Both B and C are correct. 47. Which of the following is a true statement concerning T-independent antigens? A. They bind to MHC molecules more tightly than do T-dependent antigens. B. They are smaller than a T-dependent antigen. C. They are found only on bacterial cells. D. They are large enough to cause cross-linking of B cell receptors.

48. The speed and effectiveness of the secondary immune response is dependent upon which of the following types of cells? A. memory cells B. helper T cells C. antigen presenting cells D. plasma B cells 49. All of the following are associated with cytotoxic T cells EXCEPT: A. perforins. B. granzymes. C. haptens. D. All of these are associated with cytotoxic T cells. 50. Antibodies passed to a newborn through its mother's breast milk are an example of A. artificially acquired active immunity. B. naturally acquired active immunity. C. naturally acquired passive immunity. D. artificially acquired passive immunity. 51. Antibodies function to A. directly destroy foreign organ grafts B. mark invading organisms for destruction C. kills intracellular viruses D. promote cytokine synthesis E. Stimulate T cell growth 52. MHC (major histocompatibility complex) class II molecules bind to ____ and trigger ____. A. endogenous antigens, cytotoxic T cells B. exogenous antigens, cytotoxic T cells C. antibodies, B cells D. endogenous antigens, helper T cells E. exogenous antigens, helper T cells

53. Rejection of a foreign skin graft is an example of A. destruction of virus-infected cells B. Tolerance C. antibody-mediated immunity D. a secondary immune response E. a cell-mediated immune response 54. An autoantigen is A. an antigen from bacteria B. a normal body component C. an artificial antigen D. any carbohydrate antigen E. a nucleic acid 55. Among the key molecules that mediate cell-mediated cytotoxicity are A. perforins B. immunoglobulins C. complement D. cytokines E. interferons 56. Which of the following lymphocytes predominated in blood? A. cytotoxic T cells B. helper T cells C. B cells D. memory cells E. all are about equally prevalent

57. The major class of immunoglobulin found on the surfaces of the walls of the intestines and airways is A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE E. IgD 58. Which cells express MHC class 1 molecules? A. red blood cells B. antigen-presenting cells only C. neutrophils only D. all nucleated cells E. dendritic cells only 59. In which of the following sites in the body can B cells be found? A. lymph nodes B. spleen C. red bone marrow D. intestinal wall E. all of the above 60. Tc cells recognise antigenic derminants only when the latter are held by A. MHC I proteins B. B cells C. interleukin 2 D. granzyme

61. Edward Jenner's method of protecting against smallpox was called A. immunodiffusion. B. vaccination. C. variolation D. hemagglutination. 62. Attenuation is A. the process of reducing a pathogen's virulence. B. another term for passive immunization. C. a method of collecting antiserum from lab animals. D. the process of increasing the antigenicity of a vaccine. 63. Herd immunity can be stimulated by which of the following? A. antiserum B. live vaccines C. toxoid vaccines D. killed vaccines 64. Which of the following stimulates antibody-mediated immunity? A. toxoid vaccines B. killed vaccines C. live vaccines D. Both A and B are correct. E. Both B and C are correct. 65. Multiple doses and reinoculation every 10 years are disadvantages of which of the following types of vaccines? A. modified live vaccines B. toxoid vaccines C. attenuated vaccines D. All of the above share these disadvantages.

66. Oral poliovirus vaccines is no longer routinely used in the U.S. because A. immunized individuals can develop polio. B. it is not as effective as the inactivated polio vaccine. C. it can cause anaphylactic shock in immunized individuals. D. it is much more expensive than other types of polio vaccine. 67. Why are monoclonal antibodies useful? A. They are pure preparations of a single antibody molecule. B. They work more quickly than regular antibody preparations. C. They are longer-lasting than regular antibody preparations. D. They are antibody preparations obtained from a single animal. 68. The statement "Complex antigens are generally multivalent" means that complex antigens A. trigger many types of allergic reactions. B. are found in a wide variety of cells. C. have many antigenic determinants. D. are active only in large quantities. 69. Immunodiffusion requires all of the following EXCEPT: A. an agar plate. B. an electrical current. C. a solution of antibodies. D. a solution of antigen. 70. An anti-antibody is an antibody directed against A. a large, complex antigen. B. an antigen found on normal body cells. C. two or more different antigens. D. another antibody molecule.

71. Which of the following techniques involves the separation of antigens based on their sizes and electrical charges? A. agglutination B. immunoelectrophoresis C. radial immunodiffusion D. immunofiltration 72. Which of the following types of antibody is most effective in an agglutination test? A. IgD B. IgG C. IgE D. IgM 73. Serum that has a high antibody titer A. can be greatly diluted while still being able to cause agglutination. B. causes less agglutination than serum with a low titer. C. has a high antibody content. D. Both A and C are correct. E. Both B and D are correct 74. Which of the following is evidence of viral neutralization? A. absence of cytopathic effect B. absence of antigen-antibody precipitation C. presence of viral hemagglutination D. presence of viral fragments in the patient's serum 75. In a positive complement fixation test, A. sheep red blood cells remain intact. B. complement binds to the antigen-antibody complexes of interest. C. sheep red blood cells are lysed. D. Both A and B are correct. E. Both B and C are correct.

76. Which of the following is used to detect the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in sputum samples? A. a western blot B. a complement fixation test C. a neutralization test D. a direct fluorescent antibody test 77. All of the following are examples of labelled antibody tests EXCEPT: A. western blots B. fluorescent antibody tests C. ELISA D. the Ouchterlony test 78. ELISA can be used for all of the following applications EXCEPT: A. quantification of a particular antigen in serum. B. detection of specific antibodies in serum. C. quantification of antibodies in serum. D. quantification of complement proteins. 79. All of the following are associated with a western blot EXCEPT: A. sheep red blood cells. B. a nitrocellulose membrane. C. gel electrophoresis. D. an enzyme-labelled anti-antibody solution. 80. Which of the following is commonly used as the basis for rapid pregnancy tests? A. a radial immunodiffusion assay B. an immunofiltration assay C. an antibody sandwich ELISA D. an immunochromatographic assay

81. In order to obtain immediate immunity against tetanus, a patient should receive A. an attenuated vaccine of Clostridium tetani. B. a modified live vaccine of C.tetani C. Tetanus toxoid D. immunoglobulin against tetanus toxin (antitoxin) E. a subunit vaccine against C.tetani 82. Which of the following vaccine types is commonly given with an adjuvant? A. an attenuated vaccine B. a modified live vaccine C. a chemically killed vaccine D. an immunoglobulin E. an agglutinating antigen 83. Which of the following viruses is widely used in living recombinant vaccines? A. coronavirus B. vaccine virus C. influenza virus D. retrovirus E. myxovirus 84. When antigen and antibodies combine, maximal precipitation occurs when A. antigen is in excess B. antibody is in excess C. antigen and antibody are at equivalent concentrations. D. antigen is added to the antibody E. antibody is added to the antigen

85. An anti-antibody is used when A. an antigen is not precipitating B. an antibody is not agglutinating C. an antibody does not activate complement D. an antigen is insoluble E. the antigen is an antibody 86. The many different proteins in serum can be analysed by A. an anti-antibody test B. a complement fixation test C. a precipitation test D. an agglutination test E. immunoelectrophoresis 87. A complement fixation test requires which of the following? A. heat-inactivated serum B. normal guinea pig serum C. peritoneal fluid D. heated plasma E. antibodies against complement 88. An Elisa uses which of the following reagents A. an enzyme-labelled anti-antibody B. a radioactive anti-antibody C. a source of complement D. an enzyme-labelled antigen E. an enzyme-labelled antibody

89. A direct fluorescent antibody test can be used to detect the presence of A. hemagglutination B. specific antigens C. antibodies D. complement E. precipitated antigen-antibody complexes 90. Which of the following is the best test to detect rabies virus in the brain of a dog? A. agglutination B. hemagglutination inhibition C. virus neutralisation D. western blot E. direct immunofluorescence 91. Attenuation is A. the process of reducing virulence B. a necessary step in vaccine manufacture C. a form of variolation D. similar to an adjuvant 92. An antiserum is A. an anti-antibody B. an inactivated vaccine C. formed of monoclonal antibodies D. the liquid portion of blood used for immunization 93. Monoclonal antibodies A. are produced by hybridomas B. are secreted by clone cells C. can be used for passive immunization D. all of the above

94. The study of antibody-antigen interaction in the blood is A. attenuation B. agglutination C. precipitation D. serology 95. Complement fixation A. repairs damaged complement molecules B. is a precipitation reaction C. is positive when the test tube is cloudy D. typically uses fluorescent dyes 96. The immunoglobulin class that mediates type I hypersensitivity is A. IgG B. IgM C. IgD D. IgE E. IgA 97. The major inflammatory mediator released by degranulating mast cells in type I hyper sensitivity is A. immunoglobulin B. complement C. histamine D. interleukin E. prostaglandin

98. Haemolytic disease of the new-born is caused by antibodies against which major blood group antigen A. MHC protein B. MN antigen C. ABO antigen D. rhesus protein E. type II protein 99. Farmer’s lung is a hypersensitivity pneumonitis resulting from A. a type I hypersensitivity reaction to grass pollen B. a type II hypersensitivity to red cells in the lung C. type III hypersensitivity to mold spores D. type IV hypersensitivity to bacterial antigens E. none of the above 100. A positive tuberculin skin test indicates that a patient not immunized against tuberculosis A. is free of tuberculosis B. is shedding Myobacterium C. has been exposed to tuberculosis antigens D. is susceptible to tuberculosis E. is resistant to tuberculosis 101. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease? A. a heart attack B. acute anaphylaxis C. farmer’s lung D. graft-versus-host disease E. systemic lupus erythematosus

101. When a surgeon conducts a cardiac bypass operation by transplanting a piece of vein from a patient’s leg to the same patient’s heart this is A. a xenograft B. an autograft C. an allograft D. an isograft E. a coreograft 102. A deficiency of both B cell and T cells is most likely A. a secondary immunodeficiency B. a complex immunodeficiency C. an acquired immunodeficiency D. a primary immunodeficiency E. an induced immunodeficiency 103. Infection with HIV causes A. primary immunodeficiency disease B. acquired hypersensitivity syndrome C. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome D. anaphylactic immunodeficiency disease E. combined immunodeficiency disease 104. What do medical personnel administer to counteract various type I hypersensitivities? A. antihistamine B. bronchodilator C. corticosteroid D. epinephrine E. all of the above

105. Allergens cause which of the following types of hy...