Immunology MCQs - MCQs PDF

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IMMUNOLOGY MCQs

LECTURE 1: Q1. Which of the following is an example of a parasite?: A. B. C. D.

Smallpox Whooping cough Ringworm Malaria

Q2. All of the following are bacteria, except for?: A. B. C. D.

Tetanus Tuberculosis Ringworm Whooping cough

Q3. Which of the following is a virus?: A. B. C. D.

Whooping cough Ringworm Leishmaniasis Polio

Q4. Which of the following statements regarding the adaptive immune system is FALSE?: A. B. C. D.

It is highly diverse; it improves during the course of the immune response It is much more rapid than the primary response Its main components are – barriers (eg skin), phagocytes, PAMPS Its main components are lymphocytes, antigen-specific receptors, antibodies

Q5. Which of the following is NOT a lymphatic organ: A. B. C. D. E.

Thymus Spleen Tonsils Pancreas Lymph nodes

Q6. Diffuse lymphatic tissue are collections of lymphocytes and other immune cells dispersed in the lining of the digestive and respiratory tracts and in the skin: A. True B. False Q7. Which of the following are not phagocytic?: A. B. C. D.

Neutrophils Tissue mast cell Macrophage Dendritic cell

Q8. Basophils are: A. Responsible for the release of histamine B. Antigen presenting

C. An immune cell of the adaptive immune system D. The least common of the main granulocytes Q9. Natural Killer Cells are: A. B. C. D.

Part of the adaptive immune system Granulocytes Responsible for the lysis of virally infected and cancerous cells Antigen presenting

Q10. All of the following are granulocytes, except for: A. B. C. D. E.

Neutrophils Mast cells Basophils Dendritic Cells Eosinophils

Q11. Tissue Mast Cells are responsible for the release of Histamines and other mediators: A. True B. False Q12. Which of the following is responsible for killing parasites?: A. B. C. D.

Neutrophils Natural Killer Cells Eosinophils Macrophages

Q13. Which of the following pairs are antigen presenting?: A. B. C. D.

Natural Killer Cells & Eosinophils Dendritic Cells & Macrophages Neutrophils & Macrophages Tissue Mast Cells & Dendritic Cells

Q14. Order the stages of phagocytosis correctly: 1. Phagosome fuses with lysosome 2. Digestion products are released from cell 3. Bacterium is ingested, forming phagosome 4. Bacterium becomes attached to membrane evaginations called pseudopodia 5. Lysosomal enzymes digest captured material A. B. C. D. E.

2, 4, 5, 1, 3 3, 1, 5, 4, 2 4, 3, 1, 5, 2 5, 4, 1, 3, 2 3, 4, 2, 5, 1

Q15. Lymphatic (immune) tissues are characterised by having numerous lymphocytes: A. True B. False Q16. The thymus is an organ where: A. B. C. D.

B Cells are created T Helper Cells communicate with NK Cells T Cells mature T Memory Cells are developed

Q17. Which cells mature in the bone marrow?:

A. B. C. D.

T Helper Cells WBCs and Bone Marrow B Cells B Cells and T Cells Memory T Cells

Q18. The bone marrow and Thymus are Primary Lymphoid organs/tissue: A. True B. False Q19. Which of the following are NOT Secondary (Peripheral) Lymphoid organs?: A. B. C. D.

Lymph Node Spleen Choroid Plexus Mucosal Associated Lymphoid Tissue (MALT)

Q20. Which of the following statements is NOT true: A. Lymph Nodes are the first organised structure to encounter and trap antigens that enter the tissue space B. Lymph nodes provide an environment in which lymphocytes are able to respond to lymph borne antigens C. Lymph nodes are hostile environments for B Cells D. The secondary follicles of Lymph nodes have germinal centres Q21. Which of the following statements is NOT true: A. MALT ranges from very loose and barely organised clusters of lymphoid cells to well organised structures B. Peyers Patches, which are found within the intestinal lining, are an example of MALT C. MALT has a huge number of antibody producing B Cells – more than in the spleen, bone marrow and lymph nodes combined D. Basal Cells are an example of MALT Q22. Which of the following statements regarding innate immunity is FALSE?: A. It is fully functional even at birth and in the absence of previous contact with microorganisms, allowing fast response to infection B. It is a non-specific mechanism of immunity C. It is the first line of defense and reacts to the structure of microbes D. It is does not differ on repeated exposure to pathogen E. It is capable of recognising pathogens, but incapable of phagocytic activity Q23. Which of the following statements is FALSE?: A. Microbes are heterogeneous and can mutate B. Hosts immune system targets highly conserved structures (PAMPs) present in many microorganisms C. PAMPs are produced by the organism, not the host, and are recognised by PRRs such as TLRs, NLRs, and C-Type Lectin Receptors D. PAMPs are not essential for the microorganism to survive or act pathogenically; they are prone to mutation. Q24. LPS (Lipopolysaccharide) binds to TLR4: A. True B. False

Q25. Lipoproteins are recognised by: A. B. C. D.

TLR 4 TLR 5 TLR 6 TLR 1, 2, 6

Q26. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?: A. The complement system is a collection of circulating and membrane associated proteins, many of which are proteolytic enzymes B. Complement activation involves sequential activation of these enzymes C. The complement system straddles both the innate and adaptive immune system; can be activated by both the presence of the microbe or by antibodies bound to a microbe D. Complement proteins are capable of initiating intracellular signalling only Q27. The Alternative Complement Pathway is initiated by a: A. B. C. D.

Microbe Neutrophil C5a Basophil

Q28. The Classical Complement Pathway is initiated by a: A. B. C. D.

Mannose binding lectin Molecule NK Cell Antibody Neutrophil

Q29. The Lectin Pathway is initiated by a: A. B. C. D.

Neutrophil Antibody Microbe Mannose Lectin Binding Molecule

Q30. When complement protein C3 is hydrolysed, it produces C3a and C3b: A. True B. False Q31. C3b is responsible for the oponisation of microbes by attaching themselves to its surface; this also aids in phagocytosis: A. True B. False Q32. C5a is an important complement protein in the inflammatory process (i.e. strong immune cell recruiter): A. True B. False Q33. Which complement protein does NOT form the membrane attack complex?: A. B. C. D. E.

C5b C6 C7 C8 & C9 C2

Q34. Complements kill pathogens by: A. B. C. D.

Directly inducing inflammation which in turn recruits phagocytes Coating microbes which recruits and encourages phagocytes Forming membrane attack complex All of the above

Q35. The inflammatory response causes: A. B. C. D. E.

Swelling (Tumour) Redness (Rubor) Heat (Calor) Pain (Dolour) All of the above

Q36. The ultimate aim of the immune response is to clear the infection: A. True B. False Q37. Which of the following are not released by immune cells (macrophages, neutrophils etc) upon the recognition of a pathogen?: A. B. C. D.

Chemokines Cytokines Lipids Microfilaments

Q38. Which of the following are NOT lipid mediators?: A. B. C. D.

Prostaglandins Leukotrienes Platelet Activating Factor VEGF

Q39. Chemokines attract leukocytes to the site of infection: A. True B. False Q40. Lipid mediators cause vasodilation: A. True B. False Q41. Which of the following are NOT cytokines?: A. B. C. D.

TNF IL 1 IL 6 IL 8

Q42. The main features of the innate immune system are: A. B. C. D. E.

PPRs Protective Barriers (e.g skin) Immune cells Complement proteins All of the above

LECTURE 2:

Q1. Which of the following statements regarding the adaptive immune system is FALSE?: A. The adaptive immune system comprises both T and B cells B. A central feature of the adaptive immune response is that highly specific responses can be generated against an enormous variety of foreign antigens C. The adaptive immune response is enhanced upon subsequent exposure (a phenomenon termed ‘memory’) D. Unlike B Cells, T Cells use antibodies Q2. Which of the following statements regarding Antibodies is FALSE?: A. B. C. D.

Antibodies are antigen-binding glycoproteins Antibodies are also known as ‘Immunoglobins’ (IG) Antibodies can only be membrane bound Antibodies can be membrane bound (bound to B cell surface) or soluble (secreted from the B Cell)

Q3. A stimulated B-Cell (eg after an encounter with an antigen) can differentiate into an antibody producing Plasma Cell: A. True B. False Q4. Which of the following regarding Antibodies is UNTRUE?: A. B. C. D.

Antibodies are composed of 2 Heavy Chains and 2 Light Chains Light Chains and Heavy Chains come together to form a specific antigen binding site Heavy chain determines the antibody type i.e. IgG, IgM, IgE etc Antibodies are composed of 3 Heavy chains and 2 light chains

Q5. Variation in antibodies is found at the antigen binding site and is achieved by random recombination of VDJ segments – variation ensures antibodies recognise an enormous variety of antigens: A. True B. False Q6. Which of the following statements regarding IgG is correct?: A. B. C. D. E.

It forms 80% of plasma IG It can cross the placenta Has a role in protecting fetus and neonatal immunity Very effective complement activator All of the above

Q7. Which of the following statements regarding IgM is correct?: A. B. C. D. E.

Most important in the early immune response Has 10 antigen binding sites due to its large pentameric structure Excellent complement activator Only antibody made by fetus All of the above

Q8. Which of the following statements regarding IgA is FALSE?: A. Major IG associated with mucous membranes B. Found in external secretions such as saliva, sweat, gastric fluid, tears, mucus

C.

Particularly seen in secondary immune responses to antigens which have gained access to mucosal surfaces D. Has a quaternary structure and 8 antigen binding sites Q9. Which of the following statements regarding IgE is FALSE?: A. B. C. D.

It is associated with allergic reactions (Type 1 Hypersensitivity) Associated with immune responses to parasites Found largely bound to Mast Cells and Basophils Least abundant of the main IGs

Q10. Which of the following statements regarding IgD is FALSE?: A. B. C. D.

0.2% of total IG in serum. No biological effector function Major membrane IG expressed by mature B Cells Most abundant IG in serum

Q11. Which of the following is a function of antibodies?: A. B. C. D. E.

Coat antigen and activate complement Facilitate Phagocytosis Coat viruses to block entry Activating B Cells by binding to antibody receptors on the B Cell All of the above

Q12. Which of the following are strategies employed by antibodies?: A. B. C. D. E. F.

Oponisation Neutralisation Activation of complements Agglutination Precipitation All of the above

Q13. Which of the following are NOT a type of T-Cell?: A. B. C. D. E.

T Helper (CD4+) cells T Cytotoxic (CD8+) cells T Regulatory Cells Memory T Cell Killer T Cells

Q14. T Cytotoxic (CD8+) cells attach to target cells directly in order to kill them: A. True B. False Q15. T Helper (CD4+) cells act through secretion of soluble short range effector molecules called cytokines which stimulate B cells and macrophages: A. True B. False Q16. Which of the following statements regarding T-Cells is FALSE?: A. B. C. D.

They arise in bone marrow Differentiate in the Thymus They comprise 70-80% of blood lymphocytes There are 8 different types

Q17. Which of the following statements regarding Antigen Presentation is FALSE?: A. T cells cannot recognise Antigen unless it is presented by an Antigen Presenting Cell (APC) B. Antigen presenting cells (APC) are a group of functionally defined cells capable of taking up antigens and presenting them to T cells. Macrophages, Dendritic Cells, B cells are the main types of APC. C. They present antigen on the Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) D. Only dendritic cells are capable of antigen presentation Q18. AP cells digest pathogens and display peptide epitope of the pathogens on their MHC II for presentation to a T Cell Receptor: A. True B. False Q19. Which of the following statements regarding MHC is FALSE?: A. MHC is a region of DNA that encodes a group of molecules that process and present antigen. It is the most gene dense region of the mammalian genome.(>14% of the sequence is coding, 72% of the region is transcribed, and there is an average of 8.5 genes per 100 kb) B. The proteins encoded by the MHC are expressed on the surface of cells in most vertebrates C. They display both self-antigens (peptide fragments from the cell itself ) and non self-antigens ( e.g. fragments of invading bacteria and virus) to T cell lymphocytes that have the capacity to kill or coordinate the killing of both pathogens and infected or malfunctioning cells D. There are 4 MHC classes Q20. Which unit is unique to the MHC I molecule?: A. B. C. D.

Alpha 1 unit Alpha 3 unit Beta 1 unit Beta 2 unit

Q21. The MHCs of different organisms have specific names - In humans these genes are referred to as HLA (human leucocyte antigen) genes: A. True B. False Q22. In humans, which of the following are NOT a main class I loci?: A. B. C. D.

HLA A HLA B HLA C HLA T

Q23. In humans, which of the following are NOT a main class II loci?: A. B. C. D.

HLA DR HLA DQ HLA DP HLA DC

Q24. Which of the following statements regarding MHC I & II is correct?: A. MHC class I molecules present endogenously synthesized antigens, e.g. self antigens and viral proteins.

B. C. D. E.

MHC class II molecules present exogenously derived proteins, e.g. bacterial products. Class I expressed on all nucleated cells. Class II constitutively expressed by certain immune cells All of the above are correct

Q25. Which of the following statements regarding MHC presentation is FALSE?: A. MHC class I present endogenous antigen to CD8 cytotoxic T cells B. MHC Class II present foreign antigen to CD4 T helper cells C. Recognition of antigen by T cell receptor causes T cells to become activated and causes T cells to secrete cytokines (CD4) or to lyse target cells (CD8) D. MHC II present antigens to both CD4 and CD8 cells Q26. Which of the following statements regarding T-Cell Development is FALSE?: A. When they arrive in the thymus T cell precursors do not express any surface markers such as CD4, CD8 or T cell receptor (TCR) B. Thymocytes become educated in the thymus - mature T cells C. Mature T (Mature T cells express these surface markers TCR and CD4 or CD8) cells migrate via the blood to the secondary lymphoid organs. Lymph nodes, Spleen, Gut associated lymphoid tissues (GALT/MALT). Here they encounter antigen and respond D. Some T Cells mature in the bone marrow as well as the Thymus Q27. Which of the following statements regarding T Cell maturation is TRUE?: A. B. C. D.

Thymocytes undergo a process of maturation and education prior to release into the circulation. Thymic epithelial cells surround developing T cells Almost all possible antigens in the body are presented to developing T cells in thymus All of the above

Q28. T-Cells mature through the cortex and then medulla of the Thymus and are then released into the periphery: A. True B. False Q29. During maturation, T-Cells which are self-reactive are eliminated based on encountering self-peptides on dendritic cells in the medulla of the Thymus: A. True B. False Q30. In the cortex of the Thymus, only T-Cells which bind appropriately to the MHC on cortical epithelial cells survive: A. True B. False Q31. Which of the following statements regarding T-Cells are True?: A. T cells express a clonal antigen specific receptor (T-Cell Receptor). B. It has 2 paired polypeptide chains both of which have constant and variable portions. The variable region determines the ability of different TCRs to recognise different antigens C. Approximately 10^5 TCR molecules are present on the surface of a T cell D. The TCR interacts with Antigen MHC complex. If the TCR “recognises” the Ag MHC complex, then that T cell becomes activated. E. All of the above

Q32. The T-Cell receptor consists of an alpha and beta polypeptide chains. These chains contribute to the variable and constant regions of the receptor. Which of the following are the correct subunits of these chains?: A. B. C. D.

Constant: C-Alpha and C-Beta; Variable: V-Alpha and V-Beta Constant: V-Alpha and C- Beta; Variable: C-Alpha and V-Beta Constant: V-Alpha and C-Alpha; Variable: C-Beta and V-Beta Constant: V-Beta and C-Beta; Variable: C-Alpha and V-Alpha

Q33. Which of these statements regarding T-Cell effector function are TRUE?: A. CD8+ T cells are also called Cytotoxic T cell lymphocytes (CTLs) B. These cells possess a full range of cytotoxic granule proteins, e.g. perforin , and other molecules required to kill a target cell. C. They kill by pumping cytotoxic proteins into target cells e.g. viral infected or cancer cells. D. All of the above Q34. CD4 Effector Function: CD4+ T cells exert most effects through production of cytokines (Interleukin-1, TNF-a etc) which in turn activate other immune cells,e.g. B cell, phagocytes, eosinophils, CD8+ T cells: A. True B. False

LECTURE 3:

Q1. A Type I Hypersensitivity reaction is an allergic reaction to foreign antigen only: A. True B. False Q2. Type II, III & IV Hypersensitivity reactions can be to either host or foreign antigens: A. True B. False Q3. Which of the following statements regarding Hypersensitivity reactions is true?: A. Immune responses themselves can sometimes cause injury or disease B. ALL pathologic or injurious immune reactions are termed hypersensitivity reactions. C. These reactions are classified based on the mechanism that is responsible for tissue injury or disease D. All of the above Q4. Which type of Hypersensitivity reaction is the following: “Mediated through the degranulation of Mast cells and eosinophils. Effects are felt within minutes of exposure” A. B. C. D.

Type I – Immediate Hypersensitivity/Allergic Response Type III – Immune Complex Mediated Type IV – Delayed Hypersensitivity (T-Cell Mediated) Type II – Antibody Mediated

Q5. Which type of Hypersensitivity reaction is the following: “Caused by antibodies reacting with the antigen present of surface of cells. The bound antibody then activates complement/macrophages” A. Type I – Immediate Hypersensitivity/Allergic Response B. Type III – Immune Complex Mediated C. Type IV – Delayed Hypersensitivity (T-Cell Mediated)

D. Type II – Antibody Mediated Q6. Which type of Hypersensitivity reaction is the following: “Complexes of antibody-antigen form and cause damage either at site of formation, or travel through circulation and cause damage elsewhere” A. B. C. D.

Type I – Immediate Hypersensitivity/Allergic Response Type III – Immune Complex Mediated Type IV – Delayed Hypersensitivity (T-Cell Mediated) Type II – Antibody Mediated

Q7. Which type of Hypersensitivity reaction is the following: “Mediated through the degranulation of Mast cells and eosinophils. Effects are felt within minutes of exposure” A. B. C. D.

Type I – Immediate Hypersensitivity/Allergic Response Type III – Immune Complex Mediated Type IV – Delayed Hypersensitivity (T-Cell Mediated) Type II – Antibody Mediated

Q8. A rapid IgE and mast cell-mediated vascular and smooth muscle reaction is typical of a: A. B. C. D.

Type I – Immediate Hypersensitivity/Allergic Response Type III – Immune Complex Mediated Type IV – Delayed Hypersens...