Pathophysiology MCQs PDF

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Pathophysiology MCQs – ULTIMATE, ALL STAR AND ELITE

Hi everyone I made this document for pathophysiology, it contains all new McQs, that I’ve received and I’ve answered the ones that needed answering. In total it has around 1000 new McQs from colloquiums and exams. The ones I wasn’t more then 90% sure about, I’ve said check after my answer. It was really hard to make. Took so long. I can’t even explain how hard it was to make this. Hopefully everyone passes. Pages 1-120 contains all new McQs. Pages 121-247 contains all old McQs from the website, that are all answered just in case they come up. If anyone wants me to separate new from old McQs and make separate PDFs then let me know. Good luck for the exam everyone. 2) Which is the most effective long-term adaptation which can be developed at high altitude sojourn? a. Hyperventilation b. polycythemia c. Increased pulmonary diffusion capacity d. Increased affinity of the haemoglobin to oxygen e. Tachycardia 3) Which of the following statements regarding the bleeding disorders is TRUE? a. Low platelets count is expected in splenomegaly b. Hemophilia A affects only women c. Platelets are produced in the spleen d. Hemophilia B affects only women 4) The receptors for pain are called: a. Baroreceptors b. Aloceptors c. Nociceptors d. Trauma receptors e. velociraptors 5) Which of the following statements about pneumothorax is TRUE? a. Tension pneumothorax could be successfully treated by injecting high dose of corticosteroids b. Tension pneumothorax describes a condition of excessive fluid collection in the lung c. Pneumothorax causes partial or complete collapse of the affected lung

d. Open pneumothorax occurs when a blood vessel on the lung surface ruptures. 6) How is the clinical sign of bulky, frothy, pale stool, caused by impaired lipid digestion called? a. Steatorrhea b. cachexia c. Logorrhea d. Lipidorrhea e. None of above 7) Which are the organs directly involved in the elimination of protons from the organism regarding the maintenance of the acid base balance? a. Liver and heart b. Kidney and heart c. Lungs and kidneys d. Liver and kidneys e. Heart and lungs

8) Which of the following statements regarding the functional manifestations of liver cirrhosis is TRUE? a. Patients with advanced liver cirrhosis are hypoglycemic due to increased glucose consumption, resulting from decreased beta oxidation in the hepatocyte. b. Patients with advanced liver cirrhosis are hyperglycemic due to damage to the pancreas by the inflammatory process. c. Patients with advanced liver cirrhosis are hyperglycemic, due to impaired glucose metabolism in the liver. d. Patients with advanced liver cirrhosis are predisposed to night time hypoglycemia due to decreased glycogen storage. 9) Which of the following is the most common way of developing a pyelonephritis? a. Ascending infection with gram (+) bacteria b. Descending infection with gram (+) bacteria c. Ascending infection with gram (-) bacteria d. Descending infection with gram (-) bacteria 10) Which of the following statements regarding glomerulonephritis is TRUE? a. Always presents with nephrotic syndrome b. May present with nephritis or nephrotic syndrome, depending on the type of glomerulonephritis c. Nephritic or nephrotic syndrome will be present only in the terminal stages of chronic kidney disease. d. Always presents with nephritic syndrome 11) Which type of hypoxia is usually present in patients with liver cirrhosis? a. Mixed hypoxia b. Haemic hypoxia c. No hypoxia is present d. Hypoxic hypoxia

e. Circulatory hypoxia 12) Which of following statements regarding respiratory acidosis is FALSE? a. pCO2 in compensated respiratory acidosis is normal b. Respiratory acidosis is compensated by metabolic alkalosis c. HCO3 levels in non compensated respiratory acidosis are normal d. pH in compensated respiratory acidosis is normal 13) Which of the following is NOT a mechanism for the development of endocrine hyperfunction? a. Increased hormonal production in the gland b. Increased stimulation of the gland c. Ecotopic production of a hormone d. Receptor defects 14) Which of the following statements regarding the role of Aspirin in relation to the coagulation cascade is TRUE? a. increases the release of NO from the endothelium leading to endothelial leakage and vasopathy. b. Irreversibly blocks COX1 in platelets disturbing their function c. Suppresses the thrombosis d. Binds to antithrombin II (AT III) and leads to structural activation of the latter leading to coagulopathy 15) What is the erythrocyte morphology in vitamin B12 deficiency anemia? a. Hyperchromic and microcytic b. Macrocytic and hyperchromic c. Hyperchromic and normocytic d. Hypochromic and microcytic 16) Which of the following statements regarding dyslipedemias is TRUE? a. They have no negative impact on the organism b. All of them are easily treated with diet c. They are classified as primary and acquired d. Affect only males, because they have X recessive inheritance 17) Impaired diffusion could result from all of the following conditions. EXCEPT a. Decreased contact time between blood and the gas exchange area b. Reduction of the alveolar capillary surface c. Alveolar hyperventilation d. Thickening of the alveolar capillary barrier 18) Which of the following statements is NOT true for the stable angina? a. It is caused by increased myocardial demands for oxygen b. It is cause by atherosclerosis of a coronary artery c. It is relieved by rest d. The pain appears during physical exercise e. It is caused by coronary artery thrombosis

19) which of the following is NOT a factor for edema development? a. Decreased osmotic pressure b. Increased permeability c. Decreased lymphatic drainage d. Increased hydrostatic pressure 20) Which of the following could be a potential mechanism for the stimulation of cellular proliferation caused by promoters, regarding the pathogenesis of cancer development? a. Stimulating oncogenes in the genome of the cell b. Increasing surface receptors for growth factors c. Tumour suppressor gene to be deactivated d. All answers are correct 21) Which of the following conditions could be a reason to develop hypercalcemia? a. Liver failure b. Multiple myeloma c. Hypothyroidism d. Pseudohypoparathyroidism 22) Which of the following pathogenetic mechanisms is responsible for the development of anemia in liver cirrhosis? a. Chronic hemorrhage b. Fe and Vit B12 deficiency c. Hypoplastic erythropoiesis d. Extravascular hemolysis e. All of the above 23) which of the following is TRUE for the cytotoxic type of hypersensitivity reactions? a. There is proliferation of sensitized CD4+ T-lymphocyte b. Antibodies are formed against antigens on body cells c. They are IgE mediated d. There is deposition of circulating antigen antibody complexes 24) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of oligo anuric stage of acute kidney injury (acute renal failure)? a. Hypokaliemia and associated with it increased risk of fatal arrhythmias b. Decrease in diuresis c400ml/24h with subsequent hypervolemia c. Metabolic acidosis d. Hypervolemia and increased risk for fatal pulmonary and cerebral edema 25) Which of the following is NOT a type of shock? a. Obstructive b. Restrictive c. Cardiogenic d. Hypovolemic 26) Which of the following conditions could be a potential cause for the development of renovascular hypertension? a. Glomerulonephritis

b. c. d. e.

Atherosclerosis of the renal artery Pyelonephritis Hypercorticism Renal calculosis

27) Which of the following could be a cause for the development of hyperglycemia? a. Hyperthyroidism b. A 10 hour period of fasting c. Advanced liver cirrhosis d. Insulinoma 28) According to the hypertension classification blood pressure 155/95 mmHg refers to: a. Normal blood pressure b. Arterial hypertension III degree c. Arterial hypertension I degree d. Normal high blood pressure e. Arterial hypertension II degree 29) Which of the following statements refers to Addisons disease? a. Underproduction of androgens by the adrenal medulla b. Overproduction of cortisol and aldosterone by adrenal cortex c. Overproduction of androgens by the adrenal medulla d. A long term endocrine disorder of underproduction enough steroid hormones 30) Which of the following is a risk factor for obstructive sleep apnea? a. Hypoparathyroidism b. Obesity c. Hyperthyroidism d. All of the above e. None of the above 31) Which of the following conditions IS LIKELY to cause hypoglycemia? a. Insulinoma b. Pheochromocytoma c. Myoma d. Gastrinoma 32) Which of the following IS NOT a common etiological factor for liver cirrhosis? a. Alcohol b. Heavy metals c. Hepatitis C d. Smoking 33) Which of the following IS a functional manifestation of venous hyperemia? a. Edema of the organ or tissue b. Local cyanosis c. Decreased local temperature d. Increased volume of the organ or area e. All of the above

34) Which of the following IS NOT a mechanism for the development of hypoxia in patients with respiratory failure? a. Decreased V/Q ratio b. Respiratory alkalosis c. Alveolar hypoventilation d. Impaired diffusion of O2 through the alveolar capillary membrane 35) Which of the following statements regarding hyperthyroidism IS TRUE? a. The body temperature is slightly increased due to suppressed immunity and frequent nosocomial bacterial infections b. The body temperature is slightly decreased due to the decrease in superficial adipose tissue leading to increased heat loss c. The body temperature is slightly decreased which causes enhanced physiological tremor in an attempt to normalise it d. The body temperature is slightly increased due to the catabolic effects of the thyroid hormones and the uncoupling of oxidation and phosphorylation. 36) How is helicobacter pylori able to survive the very acidic gastric environment? a. By living mostly intracellularly b. By secreting bicarbonates c. By metabolizing urea to a proton acceptor d. By a thick bacterial wall e. None of the above 37) which of the following statements is NOT TRUE for the interstitial edema stage of cardiogenic pulmonary edema? a. There is sever decrease of the minute ventilation b. Patients complain of dyspnea c. There are tachypnea and hypopnea d. Dry sonoric rhonchi and wheezing may be present on ausculatation 38) Which of the following IS NOT among the mechanism responsible for renal osteodystrophy? a. Secondary hyperparathyroidism with osteoclast activation b. Decreased production of Vit D3 and decreased sensitivity of VitD3 receptors in the kidney c. Phosphate retention in the kidneys d. Decreased production of somatostatin e. Cellular buffering exchanging Ca2+ for H+ in bones, due to metabolic acidosis 39) Which is the first stage in cancer development? a. Promotion b. Initiation c. Progression d. Distribution 40) which of the following is NOT a result of HIF (hypoxia inducible factor) expression? a. Angiogenesis

b. c. d. e.

Erythropoiesis Tachycardia Apoptosis Increased glucose metabolism

41) Which of the following IS NOT a symptom for hypoglycemia? a. Hypotension b. Tachycardia c. Weakness d. Loss of consciousness

42) Which of the following IS NOT an example of arterial hyperemia? a. Part of an atherosclerotic plaque detaching from the site of origin and travelling with circulation b. The condition in the muscles during physical work c. The condition in the organs of the gastro-intestinal tract following a meal d. Microcirculatory changes at the site of inflammation 43) Which of the following is an example of aseptic inflammation? a. Acanthosis b. Glomerulonephritis c. Pyelonephritis d. Tuberculosis e. Prinzmetal angina f. Acantosis 44) which of the following is NOT a risk factor for osteoporosis? a. Sedentary lifestyle b. Age c. UV light exposure d. Decrease estrogens 45) Which of the factors for edema formation is responsible for ascites development in liver cirrhosis? a. Increased hydrostatic pressure b. Decreased oncotic pressure c. Increased permeability d. Sodium and water retention e. All of the above 46) In which case of disbalance between the aggressiveness of the damaging factors and the protective barrier of the stomach is possible to occur? a. Alcohol consumption b. Overactivation of the sympathetic nervous system c. Tobacco smoking d. Overactivation of parasympathetic nervous system e. All of the above

47) A patient with chronic heart failure complains of edemas on the legs, which occur at the evening hours when he comes back home. What is the most probable pathogenetic mechanism? a. Increased hydrostatic pressure b. Decreased oncotic pressure c. Increased permeability d. Impaired lymphatic drainage e. All of above 48) Which of the following best describes the main types of hyperglycaemia, based on their mechanism development? a. Renal, postparandial due to deficiency of contrainsular hormones due to accelerated gluconeogenesis b. Contrainsular due to iron defiency, genetic due to excess of insulin c. Alimentary, contrainsular insulin deficient in other pathologic conditions d. Alimentary, glucosuric due to accelerated glucogenolysis, other 49) which is the most common pathogenetic mechanism causing glomerulonephritis? a. Autoimmune mechanism b. Fungal infection c. Viral infection d. Bacterial infection e. Traumatic mechanism 50) Sixty five years old patient experienced a sudden chest pain while watching a football game on the TV. He has never experienced such pain before when the ambulance arrived after 25 minutes the pain had disappeared. The most probable diagnosis is: a. Unstable angina b. Atypical angina (prinzmetal) c. Acute myocardial infarction d. Cardiac asthma e. Stable angina 51) What is the main functional problem in airway obstruction? a. Decreased lung ventilation b. Decreased alveolar ventilation c. Increased respiratory rate d. Increased resistance to airflow e. None of the above 52) Which of the following IS NOT typical for the development of type IV hypersensitivity reactions? a. Activated CD4+ T helper cells b. Activated macrophages c. Sensitized CD4+ T Lymphocytes d. Activated IgA and IgM 53) Which of the following statements about the hemolytic disease of the newborn is correct?

a. b. c. d.

Maternal AB attack fetal RBC Causes production of fetal AB against maternal AG Affects RH (+) mother carrying Rh (-) fetus Occurs during first pregnancy

54) Which type of hypoxia is a result of CO poisoning? a. Anemic type of hemic hypoxia b. Endogenous hypoxic hypoxia c. Inactivity type of hemic hypoxia d. Exogenous hypoxic hypoxia 55) A diabetic injected a higher dose of the prescribed insulin by mistake. What is the most likely clinical condition that this patient might develop? a. Buffer deficient metabolic acidosis b. Hypoglycaemia due to hyperinsulinemia c. Distributive shock d. Hypersensitivity reaction type IV 56) Which of the following may play a role of a cryogen, regarding the pathogenesis of fever? a. Tumour necrosis factor alpha b. Interleukin 6 c. Vasopressin d. Interleukin 1 57) Which type of hypoxia could develop at high altitude? a. Normobaric exogenous hypoxic hypoxia b. Hypobaric exogenous hypoxic hypoxia c. Respiratory hypoxia d. Edogenous hypoxic hypoxia 58) What is the cause for the development of dyslipidemia type I? a. Abnormal ApoE b. Overproduction of VLDL by the liver c. Overproduction or impaired catabolism of VLDL d. Deficiency in lipoprotein lipase (LPL) e. Decreased clearance of VLDL and chylomicrons 59) Which of the following is the most common cause for sudden cardiac death? a. Sinus arrest b. Aortic dissection c. Intraventricular thrombosis d. Cardiac tamponade e. Ventricular fibrillation

60) Which of the following statements IS TRUE for acute hypoxaemic respiratory failure? a. There are no clinically significant changes in the blood tests of the patient b. Oxygen administration is not efficient as a therapeutic approach c. Its development could be prevented if we remove the foreign body from the patient airways d. It is characterised by diffuse alveolar damage, described as non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema

61) Which of the following is NOT a common consequence of autoimmune gastritis a. Megaloblastic anemia b. Iron deficiency c. Hemorrhagic diathesis d. Parethesia e. None of the above is correct answer 62) Which of the following conditions DOES NOT develop as an example of type II hypersensitivity reactions? a. Bronchial asthma b. Hemolytic disease of the newborn c. Autoimmune hemolytic anemias d. Graves disease 63) Which of the following conditions IS MANIFESTED with venous hyperemia? a. Nephrotic syndrome b. Hemolytic disease of the newborn c. Mechanical ileus d. Right sided heart failure 64) Which of the following pathological conditions could cause hypoproteinemia? a. Dehydration b. Malnutrition c. Multiple myeloma d. Chronic inflammation 65) Which of the following endocrine disorders is most likely to be associated with metabolic alkalosis? a. Conn’s syndrome b. Acromegaly c. Diabetes mellitus d. Adison’s disease 66) Which of the following is an expected laboratory finding in a patient with advanced respiratory failure (blue bloated COPD patient)? a. Low platelet count and normal hematocrit b. Low red blood cell count and high hematocrit c. B12 deficiency anemia and low hematcrit d. Polyglobulia and high hematocrit

67) What is the term for dehydration in which electrolytes loss exceeds water loss? a. Isotonic b. Hypertonic c. Monotonic d. Hypotonic 68) Which of the following statements is TRUE for Glanzmanns thrombasthenia? a. It is a bleeding disorder, due to lack of coagulation factors II and III b. It is a genetic condition causing insufficiency of platelet aggregation, due to abnormal production of IIb/IIIa glycoprotein c. It is manifested with a severe decrease of the circulating platelets below 20X109/L d. It is genetic condition which rarely has any clinical manifestation 69) Which of the following statements regarding leptin is TRUE? a. Decreases appetite b. Decreases energy expenditure c. Is produced mainly in the stomach d. Activated parasympathetic nervous system 70) Which of the following is NOT a typical finding in nephritic syndrome? a. Hyperlipidemia b. Hematuria c. Mild to moderate proteinuria d. Arterial hypertension e. Oedema 71) Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for the portal hypertension development in liver cirrhosis? a. Increased effective circulatory volume in liver cirrhosis b. Increased local vascular resistance due to mechanical compression c. Iron deficiency occurring with liver cirrhosis d. Porto-caval anastomoses 72) Which of the following is NOT a functional sign of right sided heart failure? a. Lower limbs edema b. Cardiac asthma c. Jugular vein distension d. Cardiac cirrhosis 73) Which two types of viral hepatitis share the same route of contamination? a. A and B b. C and E c. D and E d. A and E e. A and D

74) Which of the following conditions would most probably be associated with primary metabolic alkalosis? a. Polycystic ovaries b. High altitude sickness c. Essential arterial hypertension d. Cohn’s syndrome 75) Which statement, regarding the role of pyrogens FALSE? a. Many disorders such as myocardial infarction, thromboembolism, neoplasm, induce fever by stimulating the release of endogenous pyrogens. b. Endogenous pyrogens include bacterial products, bacterial toxins or whole microorganisms c. Pyrogens are exogenous or endogenous substances that produce fever. d. The endogenous pyrogens act to increase the set point of the hypothalamic thermoregulatory center. ---------------------------------------------------------2) Which of the following statements, regarding Diabetes mellitus is CORRECT? a. Type II diabetes mellitus is a heterogenous condition that describes the presence of hyperglycaemia in association with absolute insulin deficiency. b. It has been suggested that type I diabetes results from a genetic predisposition, a hypothetical triggering event that involves an environmental agent that incites an immune response, and progressive proliferation of pancreatic beta cells. c. Most people with type II diabetes mellitus are young and thin d. A slowly progressive form of beta cell destruction that u...