Pathophysiology MCQs with answers PDF

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these are some pathophysiology multiple choice question and answers on various topics to get an idea on exam...

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CONNECTIVE TISSUE 1. A connective tissue (a) Has no matrix (b) Covers the skin (c) Has abundant matrix (d) None of these 2. Which part of body’s weight is formed by connective tissue (a) 40% (b) 30% (c) 20% (d) 60% 3. The types of fibres found in connective tissues are (a) Collagen fibres (b) Elastic fibres (c) Reticular fibres (d) All of the above 4. Whale is a warm-blooded animal which lives in cold sea. Which organ of its body makes it hot (a) Blubber (b) Pelage (c) Muscles (d) Blood vessels 5. Primary function of subdermal fat in the skin of mammals is (a) To preserve collected sum (b) To act as a heat proof matter (c) To prevent the jerks (d) To protect the body 6. The giant cell is formed by the fusion of (a) Macrophage (b) Plasma cell (c) Mast cell (d) All of the above 7. The areolar tissue connects (a) Two bones (b) Muscle and the bone (c) Muscle and the fat tissue (d) Muscles and their compound

8. Deboves membrane is a layer of (a) Muscular tissue (b) Epithelial tissue (c) Connective tissue (d) All of these 9. Histiocyte is a connective tissue cell, the function of which is (a) Phagocytic (b) Secretion (c) Sustenance (d) Fibre production 10. The main function of connective tissue is (a) Binding together other tissues (b) Supporting various parts of the body (c) Forming a packing around organs (d) All the above 11. Connective tissue is (a) Ectodermal in origin with intercellular spaces (b) Mesodermal in origin without intercellular spaces (c) Ectodermal in origin without intercellular spaces (d) Mesodermal in origin with intercellular spaces 12. The main difference in white and yellow fibres is of (a) Protein (b) Colour of the fibres (c) (a) and (b) both (d) None of the above 13. : Which of the following cells is phagocytic in nature (a) Mast cell (b) Podocytes (c) Macrophages (d) Fibroblast cells 14. Collagen is (a) Lipid (b) Carbohydrate (c) Globular protein (d) Fibrous protein 15. Vitreous humor is (a) Mucoid connective tissue

(b) Solid crystalline (c) Watery fluid (d) All of these 16. Function of adipose tissue is (a) Fat storing tissue (b) Helps in homeothermy (c) Acts as shock absorber (d) All the above 17. Adipocytes are mainly found in (a) Bones (b) Cartilages (c) Connective tissue (d) Nerves 18. The connective tissue that connects the skin to the underlying structures is (a) Areolar tissue (b) Serous membrane (c) Reticular tissue (d) Dense connective tissue 19. Ligament is a (a) Modified white fibrous tissue (b) Modified yellow elastic fibrous tissue (c) Inelastic white fibrous tissue (d) None of these 20. Which among the following is not characteristic of yellow fibres of connective tissue (a) Contain elastin (b) Fewer in number (c) Straight and branched (d) Provide toughness and strength 21. : In mammals, histamine is secreted by (a) Fibroblasts (b) Histiocytes (c) Lymphocytes (d) Mast cells 22. Reticular connective tissue is found in (a) Liver (b) Spleen

(c) Kidneys (d) Skin Ans. (b)

BONE FORMATION 1. Calcium’s importance to the body is primarily: a. to strengthen bone b. to function in numerous metabolic activities c. to whiten our teeth d. for both a and c 2. A local coroner determined that the unidentified skeleton found last week was that of a weightlifter, because the muscle attachment sites were much thicker than in a normal person. This phenomenon of reinforced bony prominences is known as a. calcitonin metabolism b. weight lifter law c. bone resorption d. Wolff’s law 3. Which two hormones work in opposition to control homeostatic blood levels of calcium via bone remodeling? a. thyroid hormones and estrogen b. parathyroid hormone and calcitonin c. calcitonin and estrogen d. parathyroid hormone and estrogen 4. A patient has his parathyroid glands removed, you would expect his blood calcium levels to a. drop b. increase c. stay the same d. increase two-fold 5. What happens to long bones when the epiphyseal disc stops dividing? a. The long bones would grow excessively. b. The long bones would cease growth in length. c. The long bones would cease growth in width. 6. The principle component of bone that contributes to its hardness is: a. hydroxyapatites b. collagen c. osteoid d. organic components 7. Adjacent osteocytes communicate via gap junctions found within: a. lacunae b. Volkmann’s canals c. Haversian canals d. canaliculi 8. A group of concentric rings of bone matrix, comprising the functional unit of long bones, is called: a. a lamella b. an osteon c. a Pillar system d. Sharpey’s system

9. The end of a long bone is the: a. medullary cavity b. c. epiphysis d. 10. Depressions on bones include: a. fossae b. c. tubercles d.

diaphysis periosteum trochanters tuberosities

11. Which of the following is not a type of skeletal cartilage? a. hyaline b. elastic c. fibrocartilage d. dense regular 12. In bone, collagen is found in the: a. lacunae b. central canals c. lamellae d. canaliculi 13. Central canals are connected to each other by: a. Volkmann’s canals b. lamellae c. canaliculi d. lacunae 14. Lacunae are connected to each other by the: a. central canals b. Volkmann’s canals c. lamellae d. Canaliculi 15. Osteocytes are found in the: a. central canals b. Volkmann’s canals c. lacunae d. lamellae 16. The structural unit of compact bone is the: a. osteon b. osteocyte c. lamella d. central canal 17. The membrane that covers most of the outer surface of a long bone is the: a. epiphyseal plate b. endosteum c. metaphysis d. periosteum 18. Which of the following would not be found in the long bone of a thirty-year-old adult? a. red bone marrow b. articular cartilage c. yellow bone marrow d. epiphyseal plate 19. Spongy bone is made up of small, flat pieces of bone called: a. red bone marrow b. yellow bone marrow c. osteons d. trabeculae 20: Which structure plays an important role in the growth in width of long bones?

a. spongy bone c. periosteum

b. articular cartilage d. epiphyseal plate

21. A vitamin that is important for optimal bone deposit is: a. A b. C c. D d. All of the above 22. Cells that are involved in bone resorption are the: a. osteoblasts b. osteocytes c. osteoclasts d. chondrocytes 23. Newly produced bony matrix that has not yet been mineralized is called: a. epiphyseal plate b. osteoid seam c. calcification front d. articular cartilage 24. Rickets can result from an insufficiency of which vitamin? a. A b. C c. D d. E 25. The skeletal system has a protective function in that __________. a. bones can be used as levers for delicate or gross movement b. calcium and lipids can be stored in bone marrow c. bones provide a structural framework for the body d. soft tissues and organs such as the heart and lungs are surrounded by the ribs and sternum 26. a. b. c. d.

The diaphysis is connected to the epiphysis by the __________. Metaphysis Medulla Sutures marrow cavity

27. Spinal vertebrae are examples of __________. a. sesamoid bones b. irregular bones c. sutural bones d. short bones 28. The size and number of __________ vary among individuals. a. sesamoid bones

b. irregular bones c. sutural bones d. both sesamoid and sutural bones 29. The frontal bone is an example of a(n) __________. a. long bone b. short bone c. irregular bone d. flat bone 30. A chamber within a bone, usually filled with air, is called a __________. a. facet b. sinus c. process d. fossa 31. A bone containing a spinous process has a(n) __________. a. flat articular surface b. pointed process c. elongated cleft d. shallow depression 32. Which of the following statements about bone markings is FALSE? a. A head is the expanded articular end of an epiphysis, at the end of a neck. b. A facet is a small, flat articular surface. c. A tubercle is a small, rounded projection. d. A tuberosity is a pointed process. 33. The mineral crystal found within the matrix of bone is called __________. a. calcium oxalate b. calcium carbonate c. calcium phosphate d. hydroxyapatite 34. Osteoblasts are __________. a. involved in the production of new bone matrix b. inactive bone cells c. involved in removing matrix from dense bone d. involved only in bone maintenance in childhood and puberty 35. The removal of collagen fibers from bone would cause the bone to __________. a. have a greater framework for the formation of hydroxyapatite crystals b. become stronger c. become less brittle

d. become less flexible 36. Osteoclasts __________. a. remove bone matrix b. are derived from monocytes c. are multinucleate cells d. are multinucleate cells, are derived from monocytes, and remove bone matrix 37. Osteolysis is the __________. a. removal of cancellous bone by osteoblasts b. lining of the bone marrow c. addition of bone matrix by osteoclasts d. removal of bone matrix by osteoclasts 38. Which of the labeled cells are responsible for breaking down bone tissue but do NOT originate from osteoprogenitor cells? a. Osteoblast b. Osteoclast c. Osvteoid d. osteocyte 39. What is the basic functional unit of a compact bone? a. lamella b. osteon c. osteocyte d. osteoclast 40.Perforating canals __________. a. are filled with bone marrow b. are artifacts c. supply blood to the osteons d. supply blood to the skin The endosteum covers the __________. a. outer surface of most bones b. teeth c. trabeculae d. trabeculae, outer surface of most bones, and teeth Cylinders found around the central canal in the osteon are __________. a. osteocytes b. lamellae c. osteoid

d. lacunae Spongy bone is located where __________. a. stress is applied from a limited range of directions b. stress arrives from many directions c. bones are not heavily stressed d. bones are not heavily stressed and where stress arrives from many directions The continuous recycling and renewing of bone matrix is called __________. a. appositional growth b. intramembranous ossification c. remodeling d. osteopenia Which of the following statements about compact and spongy bone is FALSE? a. Spongy bone does not contain trabeculae. b. Osteons are arranged parallel to the long axis of the central canal, along lines of stress. c. Perforating canals are perpendicular to central canals in compact bone. d. Even bones that are mainly spongy bone tissue contain a surface layer of compact bone. Which of the following structures would be located in a spongy bone? a. central canal b. perforating canal c. trabeculae d. periosteum Which labeled structure is continuous with the joint capsule? a. circumferential lamellae b. endosteum c. periosteum d. Sharpey's fibers What are the major steps in intramembranous ossification? a. remodeling, clot formation, internal callus formation, and bone production b. swelling of chondrocytes, growth of blood vessels, and replacement of chondrocytes c. aggregation of mesenchymal cells, spicule formation, enclosure of blood vessels between spicules, and remodeling and formation of periosteum d. clot formation, internal callus formation, bone production, and remodeling

Long bones, such as the femur, increase in size throughout childhood by __________. a. appositional growth b. interstitial growth c. both interstitial growth and appositional growth d. neither interstitial growth nor appositional growth Which of the following statements about endochondral ossification is FALSE? a. Osteoclasts migrate into the epiphyseal regions of long bones to create medullary cavities in the ends of the bones. b. A thin layer of hyaline cartilage remains at the caps of the bones to reduce friction at articulation points. c. During embryonic development, the growth of blood vessels into the perichondrium of the hyaline cartilage structures stimulates the formation of a layer of bone in the diaphyseal region. d. The production of sex hormones during puberty increases osteoblast activity at the epiphyseal plates, causing the osteoblasts to lay down bone at a faster rate than the hyaline cartilage can expand. Which of the following statements about bone development is FALSE? a. Most bones of the body form by endochondral ossification. b. In both intramembranous and endochondral ossification, chondrocytes die as calcification occurs. c. An ossification center develops in both endochondral and intramembranous ossification. d. Both kinds of ossification produce spongy and compact bone in the final bone product. Which of the following is NOT a major blood vessel of a typical bone? a. nutrient artery b. diaphyseal vessel c. metaphyseal vessel d. nutrient vein Which of the following occurs when a bone is stressed? a. Osteoblasts migrate to the area. b. Mineral crystals generate electrical fields. c. The bone becomes thicker and stronger. d. All of the listed responses are correct. Which of the following statements about bone formation and resorption is INCORRECT? a. Once adults reach maturity, their bones no longer undergo the remodeling process.

b. An imbalance of osteoclast and osteoblast activity, in which osteoclasts become more active than osteoblasts, leads to bones that are less able to resist physical stresses. c. In articulation areas, such as the head of the femur or humerus, bone remodeling happens more frequently than in the diaphyses of those bones. d. Exposure to the ions of a heavy metal such as uranium might lead to the deposition of those ions, instead of calcium, in the bone. Vitamin C __________. a. is required for collagen synthesis b. deficiency results in scurvy c. is important in maintaining normal growth d. has all of the listed effects

Which of the following statements about hormones and their effects on bones is INCORRECT? a. Estrogen causes earlier epiphyseal line formation than testosterone, leading to typically shorter heights for women than for men. b. Calcitonin from the thyroid causes a decrease in calcium levels in body fluids and a decrease in osteoclast activity. c. Lack of calcitriol production in the kidneys could lead to a decrease in the amounts of calcium and phosphate ions absorbed in the digestive tract. d. Production of growth hormone stimulates osteoclast activity. Which of the following vitamins is NOT important in bone growth and maintenance? a. vitamin B12 b. vitamin B3 c. vitamin C d. vitamin D3 Which of the following statements correctly describes gigantism? a. An excess of growth hormone is released before the epiphyseal lines have formed. b. An excess of growth hormone is released after the epiphyseal lines have formed. c. The anterior pituitary does not release growth hormone. d. Excess production of cartilage occurs at the epiphyseal cartilages.

Calcium ion concentration in the blood depends on activities occurring in the __________. a. stomach, pancreas, and duodenum b. heart, lungs, and liver

c. muscles, nerves, and lungs d. bones, intestines, and kidneys Which of the following hormones helps to increase calcium levels in bone and is therefore critical for children and pregnant women? a. calcitriol b. parathyroid hormone c. calcitonin d. ADH Which of the following statements about rickets is FALSE? a. A deficiency of vitamin D3 causes rickets. b. Bones are poorly mineralized, leading to increased flexibility of the bone structures. c. Increasing the level of vitamin C in the diet is sufficient to treat rickets. d. Long bones, such as the femur, tend to bow laterally because they are unable to bear the weight of the torso and upper body. The important steps occurring in repair of a fractured bone are, in order, __________. a. clot formation, internal callus formation, bone production, and remodeling b. numbness, granulation, clot formation, and clot dissolution c. pain, swelling, heat, and redness d. none of the listed steps Which of these fracture types is INCORRECTLY described? a. Comminuted fracture: The bone shatters into many fragments. b. Compression fracture: Only one side of the shaft is broken; the other is bent. c. Transverse fracture: The break is in the shaft of a bone across its long axis. d. Pott's fracture: The break is in both bones of the lower leg at the ankle.

HEALING PROCESS 1. What is one vasoactive substance involved with the coagulation phase of tissue repair that causes vasoconstriction and vasodilation? A. Prokinin B. Histamine C. Bradykinin D. Serotonin 2. Name the 4 phases of tissue repair according to Bailey’s? A. Inflammatory, coagulation, fibroplasia, remodeling

B. Coagulation, inflammatory, fibroplasia, remodeling C. Coagulation, inflammatory, remodeling, fibroplasias D. Inflammatory, coagulation, remodeling, fibroplasias 3. During the fibroplasia phase, fibroblasts migrate into the wound after how many hours? A. 12-24 B. 24-48 C. 48-72 D. 1 week 4. The role of collagen is A. Cell adhesion B. Locomotion C. Expansion and contraction D. Strength and support 5. What is the maximum strength of a scar versus the unwounded skin? A. 60% B. 80% C. 25% D. 90% 6. Rate the level of contraction from most to least A. STSG-FTSG-Flap B. Flap-STSG-FTSG C. Flap-FTSG-STSG D. FTSG-Flap-STSG 7. Intact dermis contains how much Type I collagen and how much Type IIIcollagen? A. 50%/50% B. 60%/40% C. 80%/20% D. 25%/75% 8. The most important step in collagen formation is hydroxylation of proline and lysine? A. True B. False

9. The optimal time to operate on irradiated tissue is A. Between 6 weeks and 6 months B. Between 3 weeks and 3 months C. Between 6 months and 1 year D. Between 4 weeks and 6 months 10. A patient on chronic prednisone therapy for rheumatoid arthritis, administration of what agent may mitigate the detrimental effects on wound healing? A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin E C. Vitamin A D. Zinc 1. When a wound is healing by primary intent the advantages include; Choose two answers a. Fairly rapid healing * b. Reduced risk of any foreign bodies being left in the wound c. Minimisation of scar tissue formation * d. Increased activity of interferon e. Decreased risk of anaerobic infection 2. Which of the following statements are true with reference to wound healing by secondary intent? Choose 3 answers a. Reduced risk of anaerobic infection * b. Increased risk of anaerobic infection c. Wound healing is usually a slow process * d. Wound healing is usually fairly rapid e. Cosmetic results are often poor * f. Cosmetic results are usually good 3. Which of the following features would suggest healing by primary intention is indicated? Chose 3 answers a. There is little tissue loss * b. There is significant tissue loss c. The wound is clean * d. The edges of the wound may be approximated * e. Granulation tissue is already present 4. Which of the following tissues will not mitotically regenerate Chose 2 answers a. Skin

b. Muscle * c. Nerve * d. Bone e. Connective 5. Which of the following are features of inflammation? Chose 3 answers a. Heat * b. Mitosis c. Meiosis d. Redness * e. Swelling * 6. What are the stages of wound healing in order of occurrence? Chose 1 answer a. Inflammatory, proliferation, destructive/migratory, maturation b. Inflammatory, destructive/migratory, proliferation, maturation * c. Destructive/migratory, inflammatory, proliferation, maturation d. Destructive/migratory, inflammatory, proliferation, maturation, remoulding e. Destructive/migratory, mitosis, inflammatory, proliferation, maturation 7. Which of the following are functions of histamine? Chose 2 answers a. Vasodilation * b. Vasoconstriction c. Increased capillary permeability * d. Decreased capillary permeability e. Localised analgesia 8. Which of the following cells types are not phagocytic? Chose 1 answer a. Monocytes b. Neutrophils c. Macrophages d. Microphages e. T Killer lymphocytes * 9. The function of fibroblasts is to; Chose 1 answer a. Breakdown scar tissue b. Produce fibrous tissue * c. Prevent multiplication of bacteria d. Promote cell division in local tissue cells e. Recognise non-self organisms 10. How may smoking adversely effect wound healing? Chose 3 answers

a. By reducing protein catabolism b. By increasing the amount of carboxyhemoglobin in the blood * c. By increasing the amount of oxyhaemoglobin in the blood d. By interfering with normal vitamin C metabolism * e. By direct vasoconstriction

OSTEOPOROSIS

RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS 1. The term arthritis refers to stiffness in the joints. A...