MCQs mock-PHAR3703 with Answers PDF

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Examples of Multiple Choice Questions (mock) PHAR37 03 (coming from the online mock test)1. Which one of the following brain regions contains the cardiovascular centre and respiratory rhythmicity centre?A) Cortex B) Cerebellum C) Medulla Oblongata D) The thalamus E) The midbrain2. Which one of the f...

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1 Examples of Multiple Choice Questions (mock) PHAR3703 (coming from the online mock test)

1.

Which one of the following brain regions contains the cardiovascular centre and respiratory rhythmicity centre? A) B) C) D) E)

2.

Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT? A) B) C) D) E)

3.

Neurons use neurotransmitters to communicate with each other Neurotransmitters are released from presynaptic terminals Astrocytes take up and recycle neurotransmitters released from synapses Oligodendrocytes are involved in myelination of peripheral nerve fibres Microglia are the main inflammatory cells of the CNS

Which of the following CNS neurotransmitter is released from the Raphe nuclei and play an important role in controlling human emotions? A) B) C) D) E)

4.

Cortex Cerebellum Medulla Oblongata The thalamus The midbrain

GABA Glutamate Serotonin Noradrenaline Acetylcholine

Which of the following Antiepileptic drugs work ONLY by altering the level of GABA in the brain? A) B)

Phenytoin Sodium valproate

C) D)

Gabapentin Lamotrigine

E)

Tiagabine

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5.

A 55-year-old patient has been brought to the hospital and diagnosed with having an ischemic stroke. In order to increase blood flow and oxygen supply to the affected brain area, it has been decided to administer a thrombolytic plasminogen activator. Which of the following drugs is best suited for this purpose? A) B) C) D) E)

6.

The activity of which of the following synaptic proteins is not DIRECTLY affected by the action of opioid analgesics such as morphine? A) B) C) D) E)

7.

Postsynaptic potassium channels NMDA receptors AMPA receptors Voltage-gated sodium channels Presynaptic calcium channels

Addictive substances such as opioids lead to an immediate increase in the level of dopamine in the brain. Activation of which of the following brain regions is the responsible source for such elevation of dopamine levels within the CNS? A) B) C) D) E)

8.

Warfarin Heparin Alteplase Clopidogrel Aspirin

Prefrontal cortex Nucleus accumbens Locus coeruleus Amygdala Ventral tegmental area

Which one of the following ion channels is specifically activated when a neuron’s membrane potential reaches threshold, leading to firing an action potential? A) B) C) D) E)

Voltage-gated sodium channels Potassium leak channels Voltage-gated potassium channels Chloride channels Voltage-gated calcium channels

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9. Which of the following comments about diabetes mellitus type 2 is the most correct A. It is always linked to a reduced ability to secrete insulin from the pancreas B. It is a mild disease linked to less morbidity than type 1 diabetes C. Patients are usually asymptomatic at the time of diagnosis as routine screening is the primary mode of detection D. It is usually seen in patients with a low body weight as the absence of intracellular glucose leads to catabolism E. Patients should be advised to avoid using foods marketed specifically at patients with diabetes

10. Which of the following is correct regarding body weight in type 2 diabetics A. Acarbose should be reserved until other treatments have failed as it may cause weight gain B. Overweight patients should initially aim to gain 5-10% of their initial body weight to improve hyperglycaemia C. Overweight patients should not lose more than 10% of their starting bodyweight as this leads to adverse metabolic outcomes D. Steroid may be beneficial in suppressing appetite E. Increased body weight with sulfonylurea therapy may be an acceptable side effect if overall glycaemic control is improved

11. Which of the following regimens is the most suitable for treating a newly diagnosed 50kg 20-year-old type 1 diabetic patient A. Humulin M3 24 units twice daily B. An insulin pump loaded with NPH insulin to run at 1 unit per hour with a mealtime bolus of 8 units C. Metformin 500mg once daily for a week, then 500mg twice daily for a week, then 500mg three times daily for a week, then adjust according to response D. Insulin aspart 16 units three times daily with meals E. Insulin glargine 25 units at night

4 12. You have an asthmatic patient present on your hospital ward who presented with a short history of illness that the GP considered to be community acquired pneumonia. The GP started to treat the patient with clarithromycin 500mg BD but the patient could not tolerate this and suffered with severe vomiting and diarrhoea. Before the treatment could be changed they were admitted to hospital via A&E. You find that their usual medication is QVAR 50mcg inhaler (1 puff BD), Ventolin (2 puffs when required), and aspirin 300mg OM. Now they are in hospital they have been started on Prednisolone 60mg OM to aid breathing, and reduce their nausea, and antibiotics were switched to co-amoxiclav 1.2g IV TDS for the pneumonia. They were clinically dehydrated due to GI losses so have been started on dextrosaline (glucose 5%/ sodium chloride 0.45%) at 125ml/hour. You notice their blood glucose on routine blood tests is 12mmol/L. What is the most likely cause of their hyperglycaemia? A. Dysglycaemia from high dose steroids B. Gastric perforation from aspirin and prednisolone allowing glucose from food straight into bloodstream C. Gastrointestinal upset from antibiotics leading to glucose producing fungal overgrowth in gut D. Glucose containing infusion for rehydration; contains too much glucose E. Salicylate poisoning from aspirin overdose 13. Hyperglycaemia due to diabetes is: A. Is the definition of metabolic syndrome B. Can result from a diet too rich in protein C. Is always accompanied by a high ketone blood level D. Accurately measured for that moment by HbA1c E. Indicated by a random blood glucose test result of 11.1mmol/L or greater

14. Senior doctor Hugh wants to help insulin pump user Kylie while she’s in hospital because although she often wakes up in the night with sweats and shakes, she has hyperglycaemia readings at 11am and 7pm. Should he tell Kylie to:: A. Lower the background (basal) pump rate and not alter the bolus rates B. Raise the background (basal) pump rate and not alter the bolus rates C. Increase the bolus dose rate before breakfast and evening meal and leave the basal rate as it is D. Lower the basal rate and raise the bolus rates E. Leave the dose rates as they are and eat less carbohydrate at mealtimes

5 15. Hugh is instructing his junior house officer, Jim, about adjusting the pump output accurately. Jim says Kylie’s blood glucose (BG) is 15 mmol/L) but she needs to calculate for her next meal (carb content 90g) which is due in 60 minutes. Kylie is saying her own normal BG is 8.0mmol/L. Jim knows he needs to use Kylie’s insulin to carb conversion ratio (ICR) of 10 and her insulin sensitivity factor (ISF) of 4. Which of the following calculation stages is correct? Use: A. 8.0 as normal BG x 60/100 to allow for time before meal B. 15 – 5.4 and divide by 10 C. (15 - 5.4) and divide by 4 D. 90/4 E. the carb weight of the meal, divide by 10 and finally subtract the value [(15-normal)/4]

16. Kylie picked up a hospital bug and was feverish all day -then she became comatose overnight with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). She had to go to ICU all day, but fortunately, is recovering. Has the DKA developed because on the day before the crisis, the junior doctor told her to: A. eat less carbohydrate in her evening meal but keep all insulin doses the same? B. increase the basal insulin dose by a total of 2IU per day and eat the same as usual, calculating the bolus doses as taught? C. switch off the pump at 8pm until 8am to prevent the overnight hypoglycaemia, as the fever stopped her eating as much as usual? D. increase the bolus doses of insulin at breakfast and supper, using the ICR and ISF as taught, to account for the hyperglycaemia she was normally seeing? E. reduce the basal dose rate by a total of 3U/day and increase the breakfast and supper bolus insulin dose rates to total an extra 4U/day?

17. In which of the following scenarios would you legally be required to denature the controlled-drug listed? A.Patient returned bottle 120ml Oramorph® 10mg/5ml solution B. Patient returned box of 28 codeine phosphate 30mg tablets C. Patient returned box of 28 MST® 30mg tablets D. Pharmacy stock of 98 dihydrocodeine 30mg tablets E. Pharmacy stock of 400ml morphine sulfate 10mg/5ml solution

6 18. Instalments for specific controlled drugs can be prescribed on an FP10MDA prescription form. Which of the following statements about the use of an FP10MDA form is incorrect? A. A prescription for oral methadone liquid, written on this form would only the legally valid for 28 days B. For interval dispensing, the prescriber must specific the instalment amount and the interval between each instalment C. The form can only be used for the supply of oral methadone liquid D. The maximum period of treatment which can be prescribed on the form is 14 days E. The pharmacist may amend the prescription for a technical error, such as typographical or spelling mistake

19. Common problems associated with long-term use of L-DOPA in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease include: A. Nausea B. Sudden On-Off transitions C. Memory loss D. Blurred vision E. Headache 20. In Alzheimer’s disease: A. Patients often have tremor B. There is an accumulation of stem cells C. Patients show amnesia D. There is a loss of dopamine E. Seizures are frequent

21. Which of the following statements is true for antidepressant treatment? A. Atypical antidepressants have generally more unwanted effects than tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) have a faster onset of action compared to TCAs C. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is no longer used to treat depression D. Antidepressant drugs are generally selective for 5-HT reuptake E. Gastro intestinal side effects are common with some antidepressant drugs

22. Which of the following is true regarding Generalised Anxiety Disorder:

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A. Occurs in about 25% of the population B. Is slightly more common among men C. Is characterized by delusive thoughts D. Can be treated with 5-HT1A agonists E. Is rarely seen in adolescents

23. Which of the following statements is true regarding benzodiazepines (BDZ)? A. BDZs increase GABA-mediated calcium conductance B. The BDZ receptor is a part of the GABAA receptor complex C. BDZs decrease potassium conductance D. BDZs are used to treat ADHD in children E. BDZs are recommended for the treatment of bipolar depression

Which of the following has a dual mechanism of action and can be used for flare ups of neuropathic pain?

A. Amitriptyline B. Fluoxetine C.Gabapentin D.Morphine E. Tramodol

8 The metabolism of which of the following opioid drugs is particularly affected by genetic polymorphisms in cytochrome P450 enzymes?

A. Codeine B. Diamorphine C.Fentanyl D.Morphine E. Tramodol

Which of the following is the most suitable treatment option for a 50 year old male with osteoarthritis of the knee. He currently takes paracetamol 1g q.d.s, amlodipine and atorvastatin Co-codamol 8/500mg

Celecoxib 100mg b.d.

Diclofenac 50mg t.d.s.

Ibuprofen 200mg t.d.s

Tramadol 50mg q.d.s

Which of the following should be used as a first line treatment option for post menopausal osteoporosis in a 71 year old who has had a fall from standing height and fractured her wrist? Her DXA scan shows a T-score of -3.5. Bisphosphonates Calcium and Vitamin D Denosumab HRT Teriparatid

9 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding combined hormonal contraception (CHC) use? he increased risk of breast cancer associated with CHC declines to become non significant 10 years after stopping

B.

Use of CHC for more than 5 years is associated with a small increase in the risk of cervical cancer

C.

Use of CHC is associated with a reduced risk of endometrial and ovarian cancer

D.

Use of CHC is associated with a small increased risk of ischaemic stroke and MI

E.

Use of CHC is contraindicated for a woman whose mother had breast cancer

Which of the following is the least suitable form of contraception for a patient with a history of migraine with aura? CHC pill Copper IUD Progesterone depot injection Progesterone only pill Progesterone releasing IUS Which of the following statements is true regarding benzodiazepines (BDZ)? DZs increase GABA-mediated calcium conductance

The BDZ receptor is a part of the GABAA receptor complex

BDZs decrease potassium conductance

BDZs are used to treat ADHD in children

10 BDZs are recommended for the treatment of bipolar depression Which of the following is the most correct regarding Antipsychotic drugs: Generally block 5-HT receptors

B.

Decrease GABA levels

C.

Increase noradrenaline levels

D.

Increase prolactin levels E.

Stimulate dopamine receptors

Which of the drugs, form the list below, is the most appropriate for the treatment of the following endocrine conditions

Answer Osteoporosis salcatonin Gynecomastia bromocriptine Grave’s disease carbimazole Myxedema lyothyronin...