Lecture Quiz 3 PDF

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All questions and answers that will be on the quiz 3 for lecture mcb2010 with nia madison....

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1. What type of immunity results from transfer of antibodies from one individual to a susceptible individual by means of injection? E) artificially acquired passive immunity 2. Which of the following is the best definition of epitope? D) specific regions on antigens that interact with antibodies 3. Which of the following statements is NOT a possible outcome of antigen-antibody reaction? A) clonal deletion 4. When an antibody binds to a toxin, the resulting action is referred to as E) neutralization. 5. Which of the following recognizes antigens displayed on host cells with MHC II? cell 6. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of B cells? associated with MHC I.

C) TH

E) They recognize antigens

7. Plasma cells are activated by a(n) A) antigen. 8. The antibodies found almost entirely and only on the surface of B cells (not secreted from them), and which always exist as monomers, are D) IgD. 9. In addition to IgG, the antibodies that can fix complement are 10. The most abundant class of antibodies in serum is 11. Which of the following statements is FALSE? the same for all antibodies.

A) IgM.

A) IgG.

D) The constant region of a heavy chain is

12. Which of the following WBCs are NOT lymphocytes? D) M cells 13. Which of the following bacterial components would most likely result in B cell stimulation by T-independent antigens? A) capsule 14. Which of the following destroys virus-infected cells?

A) CTL

15. Cytokines released by TH1 cells A) activate CD8+ cells to CTLs. 16. At a minimum, the human immune system is capable of recognizing approximately how many different antigens? C) 1015 17. Which of the following statements about natural killer cells is FALSE? D) They are stimulated by an antigen.

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18. A Treg cell deficiency could result in 19. IL-2, produced by TH cells,

C) autoimmunity.

B) stimulates TH cell maturation.

20. Apoptosis results in significant leakage of cellular contents. 21. Only dendritic cells produce interleukins.

B) False

B) False

22. Cytokine storms negatively impact human health.

A) True

23. Plasma cells will eventually differentiate into memory cells.

B) False

24. The implementation of vaccinations occurred prior to experimental support for the germ theory of disease. A) True 25. How do all viruses differ from bacteria? D) Viruses are not composed of cells. 26. Which of the following statements about viral spikes is FALSE? only on nonenveloped viruses.

E) They are found

27. Bacteriophages and animal viruses do NOT differ significantly in which one of the following steps? D) biosynthesis 28. The definition of lysogeny is

A) phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA.

29. A persistent infection is one in which period.

C) the disease process occurs gradually over a long

30. Lysogeny can result in all of the following EXCEPT phage.

C) immunity to reinfection by any

31. An envelope is acquired during which of the following steps? E) release 32. An example of a latent viral infection is B) cold sores. 33. The mechanism whereby an enveloped virus leaves a host cell is calledB) budding. 34. Bacteriophages derive all of the following from the host cell EXCEPT A) lysozyme. 35. The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are

A) found in basophils and mast cells.

36. Which antibodies will be in the serum of a person with blood type B, Rh+?

C) anti-A

37. When testing donated blood for compatibility you would find a person with O type blood C) will lack A and B red blood cell antigens. 2

38. A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of A) delayed cell-mediated immunity. 39. Rheumatoid arthritis is due to deposition of complement in joints.

E) complexes of IgM and IgG and also

40. Attachment of HIV to the target cell depends on A) gp120 combining with the CD4+ receptor. 41. The process of desensitization to prevent allergies involves the injection of increasing amounts of D) antigen. 42. Hemolytic disease of the newborn can result from an

B) Rh- mother with an Rh+ fetus.

43. Which of the following utilizes a combination of monoclonal antitumor antibody and immunotoxin? C) immunotherapy 44. Treatment with certain drugs to reduce transplant rejection can cause D) immunosuppression. 45. HIV spikes attach to CD4+ receptors found on E) T helper cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells. 46. Which of the following is a possible outcome of an HIV infection? are correct.

E) All of the answers

47. All of the following are considered examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT transplant rejections. 48. All of the following are normal microbiota of the skin EXCEPT 49. Which of the following is NOT true of acne? foods from the diet.

E)

A) Streptococcus.

A) It can be treated by eliminating fatty

50. All of the following are characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa EXCEPT A) grampositive cell wall. 51. All of the following are transmitted via the respiratory route EXCEPT D) tinea. 52. Thrush and vaginitis are caused by

C) Candida albicans.

53. The greatest single cause of blindness in the world is

C) trachoma.

54. Which of the following cause(s) ringworm?

D) Microsporum and Epidermophyton

55. Newborns' eyes are treated with an antibiotic

E) as a routine precaution.

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56. Which of the following is a subcutaneous mycosis?

B) sporotrichosis.

57. Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT E) acne. 58. All of the following are causative agents of conjunctivitis EXCEPT

B) herpes simplex.

59. In which of the following respects is measles similar to German measles (rubella)? They can be controlled by vaccination.

E)

60. Why is vaccination for rubella recommended? C) There is a high incidence of congenital infections and birth defects. 61. Which of the following statements about congenital rubella syndrome is FALSE? does not occur with subclinical infections.

D) It

62. Which of the following are incorrectly matched?E) poxvirus — fever blisters 63. Which of the following is NOT caused by HSV-1?

B) canker sores

64. Which of the following statements about Reye syndrome is FALSE? older adults. 65. The eradication of smallpox was possible because the virus.

C) It mostly affects

C) there are no animal reservoirs of

66. Which of the following is used to treat herpetic keratitis?

C) trifluridine

67. Which of the following is used to treat shingles? E) acyclovir 68. Which of the following is used to treat sporotrichosis? D) oral potassium iodide 69. Which of the following is used to treat candidiasis of the skin or mucous membranes? D) miconazole 70. Scabies is a skin disease caused by a

C) mite.

71. Scabies is transmitted by A) fomites. 72. A patient has pus-filled vesicles and scabs on her face, throat, and lower back. She most likely has C) chickenpox. 73. Which of the following leads to all the others? C) staphylococcal infection 74. Buruli ulcer is caused by B) acid-fast bacteria. 75. The patient has a papular rash. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings reveals small 4

eight-legged animals. The etiology is E) Sarcoptes. 76. The patient has scaling skin on his fingers. Conidiospores are seen in microscopic examination of skin scrapings. The etiology is B) Microsporum. 77. A 45-year-old man has pus-filled vesicles distributed over his back in the upper right quadrant, over his right shoulder, and upper right quadrant of his chest. His symptoms are most likely due to E) varicella-zoster virus. 78. A 35-year-old woman has a red, raised rash on the inside of her thighs. Gram-stained skin scrapings show large budding cells with pseudohyphae. The infection is caused byA) Candida albicans. 79. Which of the following is incorrectly matched? E) Pseudomonas — inclusion conjunctivitis 80. Assume that your lab partner swabs the side of his face and uses the swab to inoculate a nutrient agar plate. The next day, he performs a Gram stain on the colonies. They are grampositive cocci. You advise him that he should next look for B) a coagulase reaction. 81. Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

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A) chickenpox — poxvirus...