Chap 9 Multiple Choice - with Highlight PDF

Title Chap 9 Multiple Choice - with Highlight
Course Principles Of Microbiology
Institution Kean University
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Principles of Microbiology Test Bank Chapter 9 Microbiology: An Introduction, 11e (Tortora/Case) Chapter 9: Biotechnology & DNA Technology MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. Figure 9.2

1) In Figure 9.2, the enzyme in step 1 is A) spliceosome. B) DNA polymerase. C) reverse transcriptase. D) DNA ligase. E) RNA polymerase. Ans: C

2) PCR can be used to identify an unknown bacterium because A) the RNA primer is specific. B) DNA polymerase will replicate DNA. C) DNA can be electrophoresed. D) all cells have DNA. E) all cells have RNA. Ans: A 3) Gene silencing blocks an undesirable product by A) blocking transcription. B) blocking DNA replication. C) allosteric inhibition of an enzyme. D) making double-stranded RNA. E) end-product repression. Ans: D 4) The use of “suicide” genes in genetically modified organisms is designed to A) provide a means to eliminate non-modified organisms. B) delete genes necessary for modified organism’s growth. C) provide for resistance of the modified organisms to pesticides. D) prevent the growth of the modified organisms in the environment. E) kill the modified organisms before they are released in the environment. Ans: D 5) Which of the following places the steps in the PCR procedure in the correct order? 1) Incubate at 94°C to denature DNA strands; 2) Incubate at 72°C for DNA synthesis; 3) Incubate at 60°C for primer hybridization. A) 3, 2, 1 B) 1, 2, 3 C) 3; 1; 2 D) 1, 3, 2 E) 2; 1; 3 Ans: D Figure 9.3

6) The figure at the left in Figure 9.3 shows a gene identified by Southern blotting. What will a Southern blot of the same gene look like after PCR? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e Ans: D

Figure 9.1

7) How many pieces will EcoRI produce from the plasmid shown in Figure 9.1? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Ans: B 8) A restriction fragment is A) a segment of DNA. B) a gene. C) a segment of mRNA. D) a segment of tRNA. E) cDNA. ANs: A 9) Which of the following processes is NOT involved in making cDNA? A) reverse transcription B) transcription C) RNA processing to remove introns D) translation A: D 10) Which enzyme would cut this strand of DN? GCATGGATCCCAATGC A) Enzyme Recognition HindIII A↓AGCTT TTCGA↑A B) Enzyme Recognition EcoRI G↓AATTC CTTAA↑G C) Enzyme Recognition HaeIII GG↓CC CC↑GG D) Enzyme Recognition BamHI G↓GATCC CCCTAG↑G E) Enzyme Recognition Pst ICTGC↓G G↑ACGTC Ans:D 11) An advantage of synthetic DNA over genomic or cDNA is the ability to

A) insert desired restriction sites into the DNA sequence. B) isolate unknown genes. C) obtain genes that lack introns. D) make DNA from cellular RNA and the enzyme reverse transcriptase. E) obtain genes that lack exons. Ans: A 12) Restriction enzymes are A) bacterial enzymes that destroy phage DNA. B) viral enzymes that destroy host DNA. C) bacterial enzymes that splice DNA. D) animal enzymes that splice RNA. Ans: A Figure 9.5

13) In Figure 9.5, the marker genes used for selecting recombinant DNA are A) lacZ and ori. B) HindIII, BamHI, and EcoRI. C) ampR and ori. D) ampR and lacZ. E) ori. Ans: D 14) The Human Genome Project, which was completed in 2003, was focused on A) determining the nucleotide sequence of the entire human genome. B) finding a cure for all human genetic disorders. C) cloning all of the genes of the human genome. D) determining all of the proteins encoded by the human genome. E) identifying all of the genes in the human genome. A: A

15) The Pap test for cervical cancer involves microscopic examination of cervical cells for

cancerous cells. A new, rapid diagnostic test to detect human papilloma virus (HPV) DNA before cancer develops is done without microscopic exam. The steps involved in this FastHPV test are listed below. What is the second step? A) Add an RNA probe for HPV DNA. B) Add enzyme substrate. C) Lyse human cells. D) Add enzyme-linked antibodies against DNA-RNA. E) The order is unimportant. A: A 16) Pieces of DNA stored in yeast cells are called a A) vector. B) clone. C) Southern blot. D) library. E) PCR. A: D 17) A source of heat-stable DNA polymerase is A) Pseudomonas. B) Saccharomyces cerevisiae. C) Bacillus thuringiensis. D) Agrobacterium tumefaciens. E) Thermus aquaticus. A: E 18) In the Southern blot technique, which of the following is NOT required? A) transfer of DNA to nitrocellulose B) electrophoresis to separate fragments C) addition of heat-stable DNA polymerase to amplify DNA D) addition of a labeled probe to identify the gene of interest E) restriction enzyme digestion of DNA A: C Figure 9.5

19) In Figure 9.5, the gene that allows the plasmid to be self-replicating is A) ori. B) lacZ. C) ampR. D) HindIII. E) EcoRI. A: A 20) The restriction enzyme EcoRI recognizes the sequence G↓AATTC. Which of the following is

TRUE of DNA after it is treated with EcoRI? A) All of the DNA will have blunt ends. B) All of the DNA fragments will have single-stranded regions ending in G. C) All of the DNA will be circular. D) Some of the DNA will have single-stranded regions ending in AA and others will end in G. E) All of the DNA fragments will have single-stranded regions ending in AA. A: E 21) Which of the following is an advantage of using E. coli to make a human gene product? A) It cannot process introns. B) Its genes are well known. C) Endotoxin may be in the product. D) It does not secrete most proteins. E) Endotoxin may be in the product and it does not secrete most proteins. A: B 22) You have a small gene that you wish replicated by PCR. After 3 replication cycles, how many double-stranded DNA molecules do you have? A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 16 E) thousands A: C 23) Which of the following is NOT an agricultural product made by DNA techniques? A) nitrogenase (nitrogen fixation) B) Bacillus thuringiensis insecticide C) pectinase D) frost retardant E) glyphosate-resistant crops A: C 24) An advantage of cDNA over genomic DNA is that it A) lacks introns. B) can form very large DNA segments. C) is very easy to isolate. D) lacks exons. E) contains selectable markers. A: A 25) The following steps must be performed to make a bacterium produce human protein X. Which of the following places the steps in the correct order? A) 6, 7, 2, 4, 5, 3, 1 B) 6, 7, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 C) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4, 7, 6 D) 5, 2, 3, 4, 7, 6, 1 E) 6, 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 7 A: A

26) Which of the following are used to

1-Translation 2-Restriction enzyme 3-Prokaryotic transcription 4-DNA ligase 5-Transformation 6-Eukaryotic transcription 7-Reverse transcription

silence specific genes and hold promise for treating cancer or viral diseases, such as hepatitis B? A) DNA fingerprinting B) tumor-inducing plasmids (Ti plasmids) C) reverse transcriptase PCR (rtPCR) D) RNA interference (RNAi) E) complementary DNA (cDNA) A: D 27) Which of the following is NOT a desired characteristic of DNA vectors used in gene cloning procedures? A) circular form of DNA or integrates into the host chromosome B) may replicate in several species C) self-replication D) has a selectable marker E) large size A: E 28) Biotechnology involves the A) use of microorganisms to make desired products. B) use of animal cells to make vaccines. C) development of disease-resistant crop plants. D) use of microorganisms to make desired products and the use of animal cells to make vaccines. E) use of microorganisms to make desired products, the use of animal cells to make vaccines, and the development of disease-resistant crop plants. A: E

Figure 9.5

29) Which of the following methods would be used to introduce the plasmid shown in Figure 9.5 into E. coli? A) transformation B) microinjection C) gene guns D) Ti plasmids and Agrobacterium A: A

30) The reaction catalyzed by reverse transcriptase is A) tRNA → mRNA. B) mRNA → cDNA. C) DNA → mRNA. D) mRNA → protein. E) DNA → DNA. A: B 31) Which of the following techniques is NOT used to introduce recombinant DNA into plants? A) protoplast fusion B) gene guns C) electroporation D) microinjection E) Ti plasmids and Agrobacterium A: D 32) The random shotgun method is used in A) amplification of unknown DNA. B) genome sequencing. C) transforming plant cells with recombinant DNA. D) RFLP analysis. E) forensic microbiology. A: B 33) Self-replicating DNA used to transmit a gene from one organism to another is a A) clone. B) vector. C) PCR. D) library. E) Southern blot. A: B 34) Which of the following are used by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention to track outbreaks of foodborne disease? A) DNA fingerprints B) restriction fragment length polymorphisms C) reverse-transcriptase PCR (rtPCR) D) DNA fingerprings and restriction fragment length polymorphisms E) DNA fingerprings, restriction fragment length polymorphisms, and reverse-transcriptase PCR(rtPCR) A: E 35) If you have inserted a gene in the Ti plasmid, the next step in genetic engineering is A) splicing T DNA into a plasmid. B) transformation of E. coli with Ti plasmid. C) transformation of an animal cell. D) inserting the Ti plasmid into a plant cell. E) inserting the Ti plasmid into Agrobacterium. A: E

36) The use of an antibiotic-resistance gene on a plasmid used in genetic engineering makes A) direct selection possible. B) the recombinant cell dangerous. C) replica plating possible. D) the recombinant cell unable to survive. E) All of the answers are correct. A: A 37) The following are steps used to make DNA fingerprints. What is the third step? A) Perform electrophoresis. B) Collect DNA. C) Digest with a restriction enzyme. D) Add stain. E) Lyse cells. A: C 38) A colleague has used computer modeling to design an improved enzyme. To produce this enzyme, the next step is to A) use siRNA to produce the enzyme. B) mutate bacteria until one makes the improved enzyme. C) look for a bacterium that makes the improved enzyme. D) determine the nucleotide sequence for the improved enzyme. E) synthesize the gene for the improved enzyme. A: D Figure 9.2

39) In Figure 9.2, the enzyme in step 2 is A) RNA polymerase. B) DNA polymerase. C) spliceosome. D) DNA ligase. E) reverse transcriptase. A: E 40) You want to determine whether a person has a certain mutant gene. The process involves using a primer and a heat-stable DNA polymerase. This process is A) PCR. B) transformation. C) translation. D) site-directed mutagenesis. E) restriction mapping. A:A 41) The study of genetic material taken directly from the environment is A) bioinformatics. B) forensic microbiology. C) proteomics. D) metagenomics. E) reverse genetics. A: D 42) Assume you have discovered a cell that produces a lipase that works in cold water for a laundry additive. You can increase the efficiency of this enzyme by changing one amino acid. This is done by A) irradiating the cells. B) selection. C) site-directed mutagenesis. D) enrichment. E) selective breeding. A: C

Figure 9.1

43) In Figure 9.1, after digestion with the appropriate restriction enzyme, what is the smallest piece containing the ampicillin-resistance (amp) gene? A) 0.17 kbp B) 0.25 kbp C) 1.08 kbp D) 1.50 kbp E) 3.00 kbp A: D 44) A population of cells carrying a desired plasmid is called a A) clone. B) Southern blot. C) library. D) PCR. E) vector. A: A 45) In Figure 9.4, the bacteria transformed with the recombinant plasmid and plated on media containing ampicillin and X-gal will A) form blue, ampicillin-resistant colonies. B) form white, ampicillin-sensitive colonies. C) form white, ampicillin-resistant colonies. D) form blue, ampicillin-sensitive colonies. E) not grow. A: C

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 46) Nearly all cells, including E. coli and yeast, naturally take up DNA from their surroundings without chemical treatment. False 47) The term biotechnology refers exclusively to the use of genetically engineered organisms for the production of desired products. False 48) The disadvantage of genomic libraries over cDNA libraries is that genomic libraries contain gene introns. True 49) The Bt toxin derived from Bacillus thuringiensis has been introduced into some crop plants to make them resistant to insect destruction. True 50) The practice of breeding plants and animals for desirable traits, such as high crop yield, is called natural selection. False 51) In recombinant DNA technology, a vector is a self-replicating segment of DNA, such as a plasmid or viral genome. True 52) One of the first commercial successes of recombinant DNA technology was the production of human insulin using genetically engineered E. coli. True 53) A shuttle vector is a plasmid that is used to move pieces of DNA among organisms, such as bacterial, fungal, and plant cells. True 54) Bioinformatics is the use of computer technology to compare and analyze genome sequence. True 55) The Ti plasmid isolated from Agrobacterium can be used to insert DNA into any type of plant. False ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 56) The local public health agency has received reports of an outbreak of Salmonella gastroenteritis among attendees at a city-sponsored chili cook-off. What techniques from recombinant DNA technology would the agency likely use to investigate this outbreak? Describe the expected results from these techniques. 57) Pseudomonas syringae is found naturally in the soil. Sold as Snomax, it is used to make snow at ski resorts. The same bacterium with a gene deletion (Ice-minus) is used to prevent ice formation on plants. Should Snomax and Ice-minus be considered modified organisms and subject to precautions of releasing genetically modified organisms? Explain why or why not. 58) Your research group is investigating the possible use of genetically-engineered cells to produce a vaccine for malaria. List the pros and cons of using E. coli, Saccharomyces, and animal cells to produce the vaccine....


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