Chapter 15 Hmwrk PDF

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Chapter 15 1. a) A response that is uniquely directed against pathogenic Bordetella pertussis would involve what component? Antibodies b) First line defenses have what aspect in common with each other? They are physical barriers against invading pathogens c) Both the innate and adaptive defenses of the immune system work to prevent the penetration and colonization by pathogens, and the disease they cause d) If a new bacterial pathogen entered a human body through an accidental needle stick, the first cell that would try to kill the pathogen would likely be a phagocyte 2. Humans have species resistance to feline immunodeficiency virus for which of the following reasons? Human cells do not have the chemical receptors required to attachment by feline immunodeficiency virus 3. The first and second line of defense against microbial invasion are part of Innate immunity 4. Protection from infection known as species resistance is a result of Both the absence of necessary receptors and lack of suitable environment in the body

5. The phenomenon known as species resistance is a highly specific defense against infectious agents. False 6. In innate immunity, which of the following is NOT a way that antimicrobial peptides are used? They stimulate antibody production 7. Malfunctioning goblet cells would result in which of the following problems? Increased respiratory infections 8. A microbiologist has isolated a bacterium from the skin and wishes to determine whether it might be a member of the normal microbiota. Which of the following would NOT be evidence for such a conclusion? They bacterium produces a large number of virulence factors 9. Due to the actions of tears, potential pathogens of the eyes and its membranes usually end up where? The stomach 10. Phagocytic cells associated with the epidermis are called Dendritic cells 11. Why are smokers more likely to have infections with respiratory pathogens? Poisons and tars in tobacco smoke damage ciliated columnar cells 12. The skin and the mucous membranes are similar in which of the following aspects?

Both have epithelial cells packed closely together 13. Which of the following contributes to protecting the eyes from microbial invasion? Tears contain lysozyme and salt and mechanically flush particles from the eyes 14. Which of the following is the best definition of “microbial antagonism’? The presence of normal microbiota that protect the body by competing with pathogens in a variety of ways to prevent pathogens from invading the body 15. Which of the following cells is a component of the bodys first line defense? Goblet cells 16. First line of defense may be described as Intact skin, mucous membranes, sebum, tears, and so forth 17.

a) Phagocytosis is defined as The ingestion of solid material by a eukaryotic cell b) How is phagocytosis in the immune system different from protozoan phagocytosis? Protozoan phagocytosis is used for feeding; phagocytosis by immune cells is used to fight infection

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a) What does the plasm membrane of a phagocyte attach to on a Microorganism? Glycoproteins

b) The process by which a phagocyte moves toward a chemical signal at the site of an infection is called

chemotaxis c) Which of the following phagocytic process occurs last in the sequence? Exocytosis d) What is the role of opsonins? They create “handles” that make it easier for The pseudopods of phagocytes to attach to the microbe invader e) What is a phagolysosome? The structure that results from the fusion of a phagosome and a lysosome 19. The process of phagocytosis involve all of the following EXCEPT? Secretion of cytotoxins 20. Which cell becomes a macrophage when leaving the bloodstream? Monocyte 21. Which of the following statements regarding phagocyte recognition of pathogens is TRUE? TLRs in the phagocyte cytoplasmic membrane bind surface structures of microbes. 22. Which of the following are macrophage functions? Phagocytosis of pathogens and secretion of alpha interferons and leukotrienes 23.

a) An inflammatory response would result from which of the following? Jellyfish sting

b) If a person turns their ankle, how would one determine if damage to the tissue in the ankle has occurred? The ankle is red, swollen, and warm to the touch c) What is the function of inflammation in response to a burn from a hot iron? To repair the damaged tissue 24.

a) What direct effect do histamines and leukotrienes have on capillaries? They allow capillary walls to open and become leaky b) Emigration is the migration of phagocytes through blood vessels to the site of tissue damage c) Why is vasodilation important to tissue repair? It allows for an increased delivery of oxygen, nutrients, and phagocytes to the site of damage d) Pus is comprised of dead phagocytes e) Which of the following can release histamines? Cells from damaged tissues and the complement pathway

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a) Basophils, platelets, and MAST CELLS are all capable of secreting histamines. b) Which of the following grouping contain things that are all true indicators of inflammation? Redness, heat, edema, pain

c) Increased permeability of the vessels leads to EDEMA and pain. d) The process of blood clotting leads to the formation of BRADYKININ a potent mediator of inflammation. e) Histamines are released when mast cells are exposed to C3a and C5a, which are fragments of complement proteins. f) Inflammatory mediators such as bradykinin and histamine cause blood vessels to VASODILATE g) Leukocytes have the ability to cross the vessel wall out of the blood stream and into the tissues. This process is known as DIAPEDESIS h) Acute and chronic inflammation differ in that acute inflammation DEVELOP QUICKLY, ENDS QUICKLY, AND IS TYPICALLY BENEFICIAL 26.

a) What cellular macromolecules make up the complement pathway? Proteins b) Based on the animation, which of the following is cleaved by C1? C2 and C4 c) Where are the complement proteins found in the body? The blood serum

d) Based on the animation, which of the following is responsible for cleaving C3? C2a C4a e) Based on the animation, which of the complement proteins can directly bind to the surface of a bacterial cell? C3b 27.

a) Which of the complement pathways employs properdin? Alternative pathway b) In the classical pathway, which of the following directly activates cellular responses? C3a, C5a, and C5b, C6, C7 c) Antibodies from cellular immune response are used in the classical pathway d) Which of the complement pathways was discovered first? The classical pathway e) Which of the following are functions of lectins/ they act as opsonins for phagocytosis, they attach to carbohydrates on some bacterial and viral surfaces, and they activate C2 and C4

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a) how does cytolysis via the complement pathway? Formation of the MAC in invading cells, killing them b) Which complement protein is used as an opsonin? C3b

c) If a person lacked the ability to form C5, what direct result of complement could still occur? Opsonization d) If a person could not form C2, which result of complement would be affected? Cytolysis, chemotaxis, inflammation, and opsonization e) What complement result involves the use of phagocytes? Chemotaxis and opsonization 29. Which of the following leukocytes is primarily responsible for an immune response against helminths? Eosinophils 30. If a microbe were capable of preventing a phagosome from fusing with a lysosome, which of the following would occur? The microbe would survive inside the phagocyte 31. A human cell that maintains an antiviral state induced by alpha or beta interferons for too long will die because IT CANNOT MAKE PROTEINS 32. The events of fever are antagonistic to which of the following processes? Vasodilation 33. Erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets are formed by a process called HEMATOPOIESIS.

34. A differential white blood cell count that shows elevated levels of eosinophils probably indicates which of the following in the patient? Allergies 35. The process of diapedesis is important because IT ALLOWS THE WHITE BLOOD CELLS TO LEAVE THE VESSEL SYSTEM AND ATTACK PATHOGENS IN THE TISSUES 36. Why is the alternative pathway of complement useful in the early stages of an infection? It does not rely on activation by antibodies 37. Each of the different activation pathways for complement has advantage and disadvantages compared to the other two pathways. Which of the following correctly lists an advantage and a disadvantage of classical activation in response to a new microbial intruder? Advantage: very specific Disadvantage: slow to induce complement. 38. Response to specific pathogens that can improve with subsequent exposure is THIRD LINKE OF DEFENSE

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a) Why would bleeding time be increased in this patient? Platelet count is decreased b) What is the most expedient way to increase the blood cell and platelet counts of this patient right now/ Blood transfusion

c) What aspect of this patient’s immune function would be most directly impacted by this condition? Phagocytosis d) What does anemia mean? Decreased red blood cell numbers e) What type of infection or immune reactions will the patient need to worry about until his CBC return to normal? Bacterial infections 42. A type of lymphocyte called an NK CELL detects cells with abnormal surface proteins and kills them.

Chapter 16A 1. a) Mucous membranes are part of innate defense b) According to the animation, B cells interact directly with helper T cells c) Which of the following defense systems would be involved in eliminating virally infected cells? T lymphocytes d) According to the animation, antibodies directly interact with which innate defenses? Phagocytosis and the complement system f) Which cells directly attack abnormal cells in the body? Cytotoxic T cells

2. Adaptive immunity is sometimes also called acquired immunity. Which of the following statements provides a basis for the alternative name? To become activated, lymphocytes require exposure to the epitope for which they are specific 3. Cell mediated immunity is a function of T lymphocytes 4. Which of the following is a characteristic of the third line of defense that makes it significantly different from the second line? The response is specific to a single antigen 5. The delay in the initial adaptive immune response to pathogen is largely due to the INDUCIBILITY of adaptive immunity. 6. The adaptive immune response requires exposure to specific epitopes for activation. True 7. a) Antigen processing and presentation is a ways for a cell to give information about its activities b) Why would a body cell that is not a phagocyte need to present antigens? Non-phagocytic body cells can become infected with a virus c) How do phagocytes communicate to other cells what they have captured? They present antigens from engulfed foreign cells 8. a) Which structure do antigen presenting cells utilize to directly help them present bacterial antigens? Phagolysosome b) Which of the following are likely to be found on an MHC-I protein? Damaged mitochondrial fragments

c) What would a virally infected skin epithelial cell have on its cell surface? Class I MHC with skin cell antigens d) Which of the following would you likely see on the surface of a human dendritic cell following phagocytosis of a bacterium? Class I MHC with dendritic cell antigens and Class II MHC with engulfed bacteria e) Tom has a genetic disorder in which he does not synthesize class I MHC proteins or functional NK cells. Which of the following statements would be true for Tom? Tom would not be able to destroy virally infected cells 9. a) Where are MHC molecules located on a cell? On the surface of the cell b) What is a feature of the small fragments presented by MHC-I proteins? They are small peptides, roughly 8-10 amino acids long c) Which organelle assists directly with the presentation of MHC-I antigens? The endoplasmic reticulum d) When does MHC-II loading occur? During the fusion of vesicles containing MHC-II proteins with vesicles containing digested pathogens e) Which of the cell listed below can present antigens on Class II MIHC proteins? Macrophages

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a) Apoptosis is the process of PROGRAMMED CELL DEATH b) Clonal deletion occurs in the THYMUS c) T cells recognize epitopes only when they are bound to MHC d) Thymus cells are specialized to participate in clonal because they have the ability to EXPRESS ALL OF THE BODY’S AUTOANTIGENS e) In the thymus, T cells randomly generate different T CELL RECEPTORS with a particular shape. f) If a T cell recognizes MHC in conjunction with autoantigens, it will either UNDERGO APOPTOSIS or differentiated to become a regulatory T cell. g) In reference to clonal deletion, what are the clones? They are the offspring or potential offspring of lymphocytes h) What purpose does clonal deletion serve? Clonal deletion destroys T cells with receptors complementary to the body’s normal autoantigens.

13. Which of the following is NOT part of MALT? The spleen 14. IL-2 is involved in SELF-STIMULATION OF Tc cells. 15. In regard to antibody function, identify the MISMATCHED pair. Agglutination= antibodies bind microbes to the vessel walls inhibiting spread of the microbe. 16. Which of the following is the most variable region of an antibody molecule? F ab region 17. IgM is the first class of antibodies to be made during an immune response because THE GENE FOR THE mu F c REGION IS THE FIRST TO BE ATTACHED TO THE VARIABLE REGION GENE

18. The majority of T cells that leave the thymus will have which of the following characteristics? They are able to recognize MHC and do not recognize autoantigens 19. Which of the following is a component of a B cell receptor but NOT a T cell receptor? Light chains 20. Which of the following does NOT contain MHC II on its surface/ Red blood cells 21. A particular molecule has a small molecular mass of approximately 1000 daltons. What should be done to make this molecule more antigenic? Bind it to a large protein 22. Which of the following is NOT associated with the processing of an endogenous antigen? A phagolysosome 23. Which of the following is NOT true about IgG? It is restricted to effects inside the vascular system

24. Label the parts of the T cells receptor. 25. The most prevalent antibody class in the blood is IgG

26. Which of the following functions in agglutination? IgA and IgG antibodies 27. major histocompatibility antigens are AUTOANTIGENS INVOLVED IN EPITOPE RECOGNITION 28. Class I MHC molecules are essential for PRESENTATION OF ENDOGENOUS ANTIGENS. 29. Class II MHC are found on PROFESSIONAL ANTIGEN PRESENTING CELLS 30. IgG antibodies can carry out all five antibody functions. True 31. A single B lymphocyte can recognize multiple antigenic determinants. False 32. Cytokines are soluble regulatory proteins that act as intercellular signals and include substances such as interleukins, interferon, and growth factors True...