Copy of Fortinberry 1 - Review PDF

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The sinoatrial node is located in what chamber of the heart? (1) A. Left atrium B. Right atrium C. Left ventricle D. Right ventricle Where in the tissues does nutrient exchange take place? A. Capillaries B. Interstitial spaces C. Arterioles D. Venules During which phase of the cardiac cycle is ventr...

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[1] 1.

The sinoatrial node is located in what chamber of the heart? (1.1) A. Left atrium B. Right atrium C. Left ventricle D. Right ventricle

2.

Where in the tissues does nutrient exchange take place? A. Capillaries B. Interstitial spaces C. Arterioles D. Venules

3.

During which phase of the cardiac cycle is ventricular volume the lowest? A. Atrial systole B. Isovolumetric ventricular contraction C. At the onset of rapid ventricular ejection D. Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation

4.

The heart contains a variety of different types of muscle fibers, each with a different frequency of spontaneous contraction. Which of the following has the shortest period (highest frequency) of spontaneous contraction? A. Purkinje fibers B. SA node C. AV node D. Myocardium

5.

Stimulation of CN X will cause which of the following effects? A. Atrial fibrillation B. Sinus bradycardia C. Cardiac rigor D. Ventricular fibrillation

6.

The volume of air moved going from full forced expiration to full forced inspiration is known as A. Inspiratory capacity B. Vital capacity C. Total lung capacity D. Inspiratory reserve volume

7.

During periods of intense physical activity, many physiologic adaptations occur, especially in the circulatory system. Which of the following occurs during increased physical exertion? A. Increased ventricular refilling, secondary to increased venomotor tone B. Decreased cardiac output C. Decreased stroke volume D. Increased cardiac cycle time

8.

Which of the following is indicative of left heart failure? A. Pitting pedal edema B. Neck vein distention C. Orthopnea D. Ascites

9.

A patient asks the therapist to explain the function of his medication verapamil (a calcium antagonist). Which of the following points should be conveyed in the therapist's explanation? A. Verapamil causes decreased contractility of the heart and vasodilation of the coronary arteries. B. Verapamil causes decreased contractility of the heart and vasoconstriction of the coronary arteries. C. Verapamil causes increased contractility of the heart and vasodilation of the coronary arteries. D. Verapamil causes increased contractility of the heart and vasoconstriction of the coronary arteries.

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[2] 10. The protocol for a cardiac patient states that the patient should not exceed 5 metabolic equivalents (METs) with any activity at this stage of recovery. Which of the following activities would be inappropriate for the patient? A. Cycling 11 mph B. Walking 4 mph C. Driving a car D. Weeding a garden 11. During the opening of a patient's mouth, a palpable and audible click is discovered in the left temporomandibular joint. The physician informs the therapist that the patient has an anteriorly dislocated disk. This click most likely signifies that A. The condyle is sliding anteriorly to obtain normal relationship with the disk B. The condyle is sliding posteriorly to obtain normal relationship with the disk C. The condyle is sliding anteriorly and losing normal relationship with the disk D. The condyle is sliding posteriorly and losing normal relationship with the disk 12. In what position should the therapist place the upper extremity to palpate the supraspinatus tendon? A. Full abduction, full flexion, and full external rotation B. Full abduction, full flexion, and full internal rotation C. Full adduction, full external rotation, and full extension D. Full adduction, full internal rotation, and full extension 13. A 13-year-old girl has fractured the left patella during a volleyball game. The physician determines that the superior pole is the location of the fracture. Which of the following should be avoided in early rehabilitation? A. Full knee extension B. 45 degrees of knee flexion C. 90 degrees of knee flexion D. 15 degrees of knee flexion 14. During conference with the physical therapist, a respiratory therapist indicates that the patient has a low expiratory reserve volume. What does this mean? A. The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a full expiration is low. B. The volume of air in a breath during normal breathing is low. C. The volume of air forcefully expired after a forceful inspiration is low. D. The amount of air expired after a resting expiration is low. 15. During an evaluation a 74-year-old woman informs you that she is "taking a heart pill." The patient does not have her medication with her but states that the medication "slows down my heart rate." Which of the following is the most probable medication? A. Epinephrine B. Digitalis C. Quinidine D. Norepinephrine 16. A patient is referred to physical therapy with a secondary diagnosis of hypertension. The physician has ordered relaxation training. The therapist first chooses to instruct the patient in the technique of diaphragmatic breathing. Which of the choices is the correct set of instructions? A. Slow the breathing rate to 8 to 12 breaths per minute, increase movement of the upper chest, and decrease movement in the abdominal region. B. Slow the breathing rate to 12 to 16 breaths per minute, increase movement of the abdominal region, and decrease movement in the upper chest. C. Slow the breathing rate to 8 to 12 breaths per minute, increase movement of the abdominal region, and decrease movement in the upper chest. D. Slow the breathing rate to 12 to 16 breaths per minute, increase movement of the upper chest, and decrease movement in the abdominal region.

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[3] 17. Which of the following statements about cardiovascular response to exercise in trained and/or sedentary patients is false? A. If exercise intensities are equal, the sedentary patient's heart rate will increase faster than the trained patient's heart rate. B. Cardiovascular response to increased workload will increase at the same rate for sedentary patients as it will for trained patients. C. Trained patients will have a larger stroke volume during exercise. D. The sedentary patient will reach anaerobic threshold faster than the trained patient if workloads are equal. 18. A therapist is asked to examine a patient in the intensive care unit. The patient is comatose but breathing independently. During the assessment of range of motion in the right upper extremity, the therapist notices that the patient is breathing unusually. The pattern is an increase in breathing rate and depth followed by brief pauses in breathing. The therapist should notify the appropriate personnel that the patient is exhibiting which of the following patterns? A. Biot's respiration B. Cheyne-Stokes respiration C. Kussmaul's respiration D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea 19. Which of the following statements is not a common physiologic change of aging? A. Blood pressure taken at rest and during exercise increases. B. Maximal oxygen uptake decreases. C. Residual volume decreases. D. Bone mass decreases. 20. A patient with cardiac arrhythmia is referred to physical therapy services for cardiac rehabilitation. The therapist is aware that the heart receives nerve impulses that begin in the sinoatrial node of the heart and then proceed to the A. Atrioventricular node, then to the Purkinje fibers, and then to the bundle branches B. Purkinje fibers, then to the bundle branches, and then to the atrioventricular node C. Atrioventricular node, then to the bundle branches, and then to the Purkinje fibers D. Bundle branches, then to the atrioventricular node, and then to the Purkinje fibers 21. A 65-year-old man is scheduled to begin a wellness program. He has no cardiovascular disease, major systemic illness, or musculoskeletal abnormality. However, he is deconditioned because of an extremely sedentary lifestyle. Resting heart rate is 90 beats/minute, and resting blood pressure is 145/92 mm Hg. Which of the choices describes the most correct intensity, frequency, and duration at which the patient should begin exercise? A. 75 Vo2max; 30 min/day; 3 days/wk B. 40 Vo2 max; 30 min/day; 5 days/wk C. 40 Vo2 max; 10 minutes twice daily; 5 days/wk D. 75 Vo 2max; 10 minutes twice daily; 3 days/wk 22. A 17-year-old athlete has just received a posterior cruciate ligament reconstruction. The therapist is attempting to explain some of the characteristics of the posterior cruciate ligament. Which of the following is incorrect information? A. The posterior cruciate ligament prevents posterior translation of the tibia on the femur. B. Posterior bands of the posterior cruciate ligament are their tightest in full knee extension. C. The posterior cruciate ligament is attached to the lateral meniscus and not to the medial meniscus. D. The posterior cruciate ligament helps with medial rotation of the tibia during full knee extension with openchain activities. 23. A patient starting to use antihypertensive medications must be observed when getting up or leaving a warm therapeutic pool in order to avoid an episode of A. Bradycardia B. Orthostatic hypotension C. Dysrhythmias D. Skeletal muscle weakness

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[4] 24. A patient whose exercise-induced heart rate is less than the heart rate was before exercise is most likely starting therapy with A. Anticholinergic drugs B. Alpha blockers C. Beta blockers D. Antianginals 25. A patient inhales a beta agonist to relieve his asthma. After its use, you may notice A. An increase in heart rate B. A few moments of incoordination C. Flushing with red face D. A decrease in blood pressure 26. A patient is using a statin drug. Which of the following drug-induced signs or symptoms should be reported to the treating physician? A. Muscle pain B. Irregular heart beat C. Persistent diarrhea D. Intermittent confusion 27. Statin drugs lower cholesterol by A. Preventing cholesterol absorption B. Binding to cholesterol in the intestines C. Inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase D. Inhibiting lipoprotein lipase 28. A patient is being treated with an antiarrhythmic drug. The drug might cause all of the following adverse reactions except A. Dizziness and fainting B. Stevens Johnson syndrome C. Irregular heart beats D. Joint and muscle pain 29. An asthmatic patient is to be exercised in a rather cool environment. It is recommended that the patient use the inhaler A. About 1 hr before exercise B. About 20 minutes before exercise C. Just at the beginning of exercise D. At the first onset of breathing problems during exercise 30. A patient using a beta blocker is exercised and might experience all of the following except A. Some breathing difficulties B. Muscle cramps and pain C. A smaller than expected increase in heart rate D. Some drowsiness 31. A beta blocker reduces blood pressure by all of the following actions except A. A reduction in cardiac output B. A reduction in central sympathetic outflow C. Inhibition of renin release D. A reduction in peripheral resistance 32. A patient on calcium channel blocker therapy might complain during therapy sessions about all of the following except A. Lightheadedness and dizziness B. Muscle pain and joint stiffness C. Tremors D. Edema

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[5] 33. A patient under the influence of local anesthetic therapy might experience all of the following except A. Some sensory impairment B. Increased blood pressure C. Tremors D. Motor deficits 34. A patient with angina pectoris experiences some pain during exercise therapy and uses three tablets of sublingual nitroglycerin, but the pain does not subside. You should A. Ask the patient to stretch out quietly and breathe deeply B. Tell patient to continue the medication until the pain stops C. Call 911 since this could signal a true heart attack D. Administer two tablets of a non-narcotic analgesic to help reduce the pain 35. Your patient is a 48-year-old male who reports to physical therapy with complaints of left shoulder and neck pain. Symptoms began insidiously 3 weeks ago and have been increasing in frequency and duration since that time. He notices the symptoms with lifting heavy objects and shoveling dirt for a garden that he is building. Walking fast elicits symptoms. Symptoms abate after several minutes of rest. He is in relatively good health with the exception of high blood pressure and shortness of breath. What system is most likely affected? A. Cardiovascular B. Pulmonary C. Musculoskeletal D. Hepatic 36. Your patient is a 38-year-old male who is a patient that you have been treating for left shoulder pain. He was in a motor vehicle accident since you last treated him 2 days ago. He was the driver and was rear-ended. He hit his left side on the door handle and has been having sharp pain in his ribs. X-rays the day of the accident revealed fractured ribs (ribs 6 and 7 on the left). He has been having difficulty breathing and has been very short of breath. Sharp pain is noted on the left with breathing and coughing. He has also noticed some blood in his sputum. What system is mostly likely the source of the patient's symptoms? A. Musculoskeletal B. Pulmonary C. Cardiovascular D. Hepatic 37. Aspirin and clopidogrel (Plavix) fall into which class of antithrombics? A. Thrombolytics B. Platelet aggregator inhibitors C. Anticoagulants D. Fibrinolytics 38. Which of the following drugs should angina patients always carry with/on them in case of an angina attack? A. Nitroglycerin patch B. An ACE inhibitor C. Digoxin D. Sublingual nitroglycerin 39. The part of the respiratory system that is most effected by asthma is/are the A. Bronchioles B. Trachea C. Nasal cavity D. Bronchi 40. Some of the classes of drugs used to treat angina include A. Nitrates B. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors C. Alpha-blockers D. Diuretics

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[6] 41. Beta-blockers that are useful in the treatment of hypertension A. Work by competitively inhibiting beta-receptors, thereby decreasing heart rate B. Are always selective for beta1-receptors C. Do not cause bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma D. Should not be combined with any other type of antihypertensive 42. Which of the following medications should be used to treat an acute asthma attack? A. An oral steroid such as prednisone B. A long-acting beta-agonist such as salmeterol C. An inhaled steroid such as fluticasone D. A short-acting beta-agonist such as albuterol 43. In children with osteogenesis imperfecta, fractures heal A. Within the normal healing time B. More quickly than normal C. More slowly than normal D. Only with assistance of medication 44. Components of lower extremity alignment that contribute to toe in include (1.44) A. Femoral retroversion B. Femoral anteversion C. Calcaneovalgus feet D. External tibial torsion 45. Osteochondritis dissecans occurs most commonly in the (1.45) A. Capitellum B. Humeral condyle C. Medial femoral condyle D. Lateral femoral condyle 46. The joint most frequently involved in pauciarticular juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is the (1.46) A. Cervical spine B. Lumbar spine C. Knee D. Wrist 47. The most common onset type of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is (1.47) A. Systemic B. Juvenile ankylosing spondylitis C. Polyarticular D. Pauciarticular 48. Considering an injury to the medial collateral ligament (MCL) of the knee, when does the inflammatory phase of healing begin? (1.48) A. First days after injury B. 2 to 3 weeks after injury C. 4 to 6 weeks after injury D. 6 to 8 weeks after injury 49. Which of the following types of exercise is most likely to intensify delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS)? (1.49) A. Concentric exercise is most likely to intensify DOMS. B. Eccentric exercise is most likely to intensify DOMS. C. Isometric exercise is most likely to intensify DOMS. D. DOMS will remain constant no matter the type of exercise.

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[7] 50. What is the correct order of the stages of bone healing after a fracture? (1.50) A. Inflammatory phase, hard callous phase, soft callous phase, remodeling phase B. Inflammatory phase, soft callous phase, hard callous phase, remodeling phase C. Remodeling phase, soft callous phase, hard callous phase, inflammatory phase D. Remodeling phase, hard callous phase, soft callous phase, inflammatory phase 51. Which type of connective tissue includes the superficial sheath of body tissue under the skin, muscle, and nerve sheaths, and the framework of internal organs? A. Dense regular connective tissue B. Dense irregular connective tissue C. Loose irregular connective tissue D. Loose regular connective tissue 52. Which patient population is most likely to have osteophyte formation that leads to rotator cuff damage? A. 16-year-old baseball player B. 34-year-old factory worker C. 45-year-old tennis player D. 75-year-old sedentary individual 53. You are seeing a patient who has just received a steroid injection into a joint. You should A. Treat this joint vigorously B. Treat this joint gently C. Not touch this joint at all D. Postpone the session for at least 1 week 54. A patient with osteoporosis might be treated with all of the following drugs except A. Bisphosphonates B. Calcitonin C. Calcium with vitamin D D. Thyroid hormones 55. A patient has been told to use Advil for rheumatoid arthritis. You notice that the patient uses acetaminophen because a friend uses it, and it is cheaper. You can tell the patient that acetaminophen A. Can be used since it is the same as Advil B. Is different from Advil but has the same therapeutic action C. Is actually more effective than Advil D. Does not work in rheumatoid arthritis 56. Skeletal muscle relaxants A. May interfere with walking in patients who use their spasticity to control balance B. Selectively paralyze certain muscle groups C. Should be stopped quickly after long-term use when problems have been resolved D. Have never been proven effective 57. While doing a worksite assessment in the hospital business office, a physical therapist found several employees complaining of neck and shoulder pain. It was determined that making a simple change in the set-up of the computer stations could reduce symptoms. The change to the computer monitor that would MOST affect neck and shoulder discomfort is A. Lowering the monitor to the desk surface B. Moving the computer monitor closer to the employee's face C. Tilting the monitor forward D. Putting a nonglare screen on the monitor 58. The cuboid bone is located just posterior to the A. Base of the first metatarsal B. Head of the first metatarsal C. Medial cuneiform bone D. Tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal

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[8] 59. The metacarpophalangeal joints are classified as what type of joint? A. Plane B. Hinge C. Condyloid D. Saddle 60. Which muscle would move the abducted (90 degree) arm anteriorly? A. Sternocostal head of the pectoralis major B. Clavicular head of the pectoralis major C. Inferior fibers of the serratus anterior D. Pectoralis minor 61. Which one of the following structures does NOT pass through the foramen magnum of the occipital bone? A. Spinal cord B. Meninges C. Cranial nerve XII D. Vertebral artery 62. Contraction of which muscle produces extension of the head? A. Spinalis cervicis B. Longus capitis C. Longus colli D. Sternocleidomastoid 63. The nucleus pulposus is thickest in which region of the spine? A. Lumbar spine B. Inferior half of the thoracic spine C. Superior half of the thoracic spine D. Cervical spine 64. The speed of muscle contraction is a function of which of the following factors? A. Resting length of the muscle fiber B. Cross-sectional diameter of the muscle C. Creatine phosphate of the muscle D. Glycolytic capacity of the muscle 65. Which of the following describes the proper normal anatomy of the proximal carpal row, from lateral to medial? A. Capitate, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform B. Lunate, trapezium, capitate, hamate C. Scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform D. Scaphoid, hamate, lunate, capitate 66. A therapist is testing key muscles on a patient who recently suffered a spinal cord injury. The current test assesses the strength of the long toe extensors. Which nerve segment primarily innervates this key muscle group? A. L2 B. L3 C. L4 D. L5 67. A physician notes a vertebral fracture in the x-ray of a patient involved in a car accident. The fractured vertebra has a bifid spinous process. W...