Fortinberry 4 - Aral kayo PDF

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Which of the following statements about lymph node palpation is true? A. Normal lymph nodes are generally not visible or easily palpable. B. A nontender, immovable lymph node is not significant. C. Only tender lymph nodes are important in differential diagnosis. D. Lymph node palpation will confirm ...

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[1] 1.

Which of the following statements about lymph node palpation is true? A. Normal lymph nodes are generally not visible or easily palpable. B. A nontender, immovable lymph node is not significant. C. Only tender lymph nodes are important in differential diagnosis. D. Lymph node palpation will confirm an infection.

2.

A 5-year-old male diagnosed with medulloblastoma is currently receiving chemotherapy. The physical therapist is preparing to treat this patient in an inpatient hospital setting. What lab value must the therapist consider before initiating treatment? A. WBC B. Glucose C. HDL/LDL D. Platelets

3.

Differentiation of the sources of pain is critical to the accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment of patient conditions. Which of the following would not describe pain or symptoms from a visceral source? A. It can be produced by the heart and internal organs. B. The symptoms tend to be well localized. C. Hypersensitivity to touch or pressure often accompanies disease. D. Generally associated signs and symptoms are present.

4.

Your patient has complaints of loss of urine as soon as she has the urge to urinate. She also complains of deep pressure (NOT PAIN) in her lower pelvis area with prolonged standing. What kind of incontinence do this patient's symptoms most likely mimic? A. Stress incontinence B. Urge incontinence C. Mixed incontinence D. Functional incontinence

5.

A patient with fibromyalgia has performance deficits in ADLs, including lack of a daily routine because of a loss of energy and motivation to engage in daily occupations, depression and anxiety, and difficulty managing home and instrumental activities of daily living (IADL) because of fatigue and pain. Based on these performance deficits, the initial focus of treatment should be A. Completing IADL tasks independently B. Establishing a new daily routine that can be done within the patient's tolerance C. Referring to a support group to address depression and anxiety D. Energy conservation and activities for pain management

6.

Which of the following is least likely in a woman in the eighth month of pregnancy? A. Center of gravity anteriorly displaced B. Heart rate decreased with rest and increased with activity (compared to heart rate before pregnancy) C. Edema in bilateral lower extremities D. Blood pressure increased by 5 (compared with blood pressure before pregnancy)

7.

A physical therapist receives an order to evaluate a home health patient. The primary nurse states that the patient "may have suffered a stroke because she cannot move the right leg when she stands." The history that the therapist obtains from the patient and family members includes: (1) left total hip replacement 6 months ago, (2) inability to lift the right lower extremity off of the floor in a standing position, (3) recent fall at home 2 nights ago, (4) left lower extremity strength with manual muscle testing in supine is 2/5 overall, (5) complaints of pain with resisted movement of the left lower extremity, (6) right lower extremity strength is 4/5 overall, (7) no pain with resisted movements with the right lower extremity, (8) no difference in bilateral upper extremity strength, (9) no decreased sensation, (10) no facial droop, (11) history of dementia but no decreased cognitive ability or speech level as compared with the prior level of function, and (12) independence in ambulation with a standard walker before the recent fall. What should the therapist's recommendation to the nursing staff be? A. The patient should receive physical therapy for strengthening exercises to the right lower extremity with standing exercises and gait training. B. The patient should receive a physician's evaluation for a possible stroke. C. The patient should receive a physician's evaluation for a possible left hip fracture.

Fortinberry

[2] D. The patient should receive physical therapy for strengthening the left lower extremity and gait training. 8.

A patient has been diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus. Which of the following is not a sign of this autoimmune disease? A. Increased photosensitivity B. Oral ulcers C. Butterfly rash D. Increased number of white blood cells

9.

Which of the following circumstances would normally decrease body temperature in a healthy person? A. Exercising on a treadmill B. Pregnancy C. Normal ovulation D. Reaching age of 65 years or older

10. A physical therapist is speaking to a group of pregnant women about maintaining fitness level during pregnancy. Which of the following statements contains incorrect information? A. Perform regular exercise routines at least three times per week. B. Perform daily at least 15 minutes of abdominal exercises in supine position during the second and third trimesters. C. Increase caloric intake by 300 kcal per day. D. Exercise decreases constipation during pregnancy. 11. A 30-year-old woman who had a full-term infant 4 weeks ago presents to physical therapy with diastasis recti. The separation was measured by the physician and found to be 3 cm. Which of the following exercises is most appropriate to minimize the separation? A. Sit-ups while using the upper extremities to bring the rectus abdominis to midline B. Bridges while using the upper extremities to bring the rectus abdominis to midline C. Dynamic lumbar stabilization exercises in quadraped position D. Gentle head lifts in supine position while using the upper extremities to bring the rectus abdominis to midline 12. Proper supportive positioning of an infant with osteogenesis imperfecta is important for all of the following reasons except A. Keeping extremities immobilized to prevent fractures B. Protection from fracturing C. Minimizing joint malalignment and deformities D. Promotion of muscle strengthening 13. A gross motor program for a school-aged child with osteogenesis imperfecta should not include A. Muscle strengthening B. Aerobic conditioning C. Protected ambulation D. Keeping extremities immobilized to prevent fractures 14. In a child who has sustained a submersion injury, the physical therapist needs to be aware of neurologic and _______ system changes before initiating treatment. A. Integumentary B. Orthopedic C. Cardiopulmonary D. Renal 15. Which of the following is the only appropriate exercise in the third trimester of pregnancy? A. One-legged balance activities B. Quadraped (crawling position) with hip extension C. Bilateral straight leg raise D. Bridging

Fortinberry

[3] 16. A physical therapist is performing ultrasound over the lumbar paraspinals of a patient. Which of the following conditions would cause the therapist to use a lower intensity and shorter dosage of treatment? A. Diabetes B. Hypertension C. Hypothyroidism D. Parkinson's disease 17. A patient in the sixth month of pregnancy is in a physical therapy clinic for examination secondary to lumbar pain. Which of the following is incorrect advice to give to this patient? A. Sleep on the left with a pillow between the knees. B. Sleep on the right with a pillow between the knees. C. Sleep supine with a pillow under the knees. D. Sit with a lumbar support at all times. 18. Elderly patients often present with atypical signs and symptoms. Which of the following best explains the atypical presentation of symptoms in the elderly? A. The number of potential risk factors for disease may be greater. B. They fail to make connections between their signs and symptoms. C. The onset of new disease often presents in the most vulnerable systems. D. They utilize home remedies that alter their signs and symptoms. 19. In a direct access state, a physical therapist is examining a patient with joint pain complaints. The patient has had no diagnostic work-up before arrival at the clinic. Which finding would raise suspicion of rheumatoid arthritis rather than just osteoarthritic complaints? A. Morning stiffness that resolves within 10 to 15 minutes after getting up B. Development of joint pain in more than one joint with onset between 20 to 40 years of age C. Unilateral joint pain in hip or knee D. Absence of associated symptoms such as fatigue, weight loss, or malaise 20. Which descriptors make you suspicious of a neuropathic pain source? A. Aching, sore, dull B. Dreadful, cruel, punishing C. Burning, shooting, pricking D. Throbbing, pulsing, pounding 21. Which of the following statements is true relative to differentiation of dementia from depression in older adults? A. Memory loss associated with dementia is often noticed by the patient. B. Disorientation is generally associated with dementia but not depression. C. Difficulty concentrating is more common with dementia. D. Writing, speaking, and motor impairments are more common with depression. 22. A patient is difficult to arouse and falls asleep without constant stimulation from the therapist. Even when the patient is aroused, he has difficulty interacting with the physical therapist. What would be the BEST description of the patient's level of arousal? A. Stupor B. Lethargic C. Obtunded D. Alert 23. Mrs. Brown is a patient on the acute rehabilitation unit. She is sleepy, but easily roused when you enter the room. She knows her name but thinks she is at home. She is unable to give the year. She tries to get out of bed when you approach, and doesn't seem to realize she has weakness on the left side. Briefly describe Mrs. Brown's arousal, orientation, and cognition. A. Alert, oriented x2, confused B. Obtunded, oriented x1, confused C. Lethargic, oriented x1, confused D. Sleepy, oriented x3, confused .

Fortinberry

[4] 24. A physical therapist is testing a patient with diagnosis of vestibular impairment. Which of the following is most likely to be true? A. The vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR) is normal so you can rule out posterior canal benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV). B. The VOR is delayed so you suspect a unilateral hypofunction. C. The dynamic visual acuity test shows a two-line loss so you suspect a unilateral hypofunction. D. The dynamic visual acuity test shows a four-line loss so you suspect posterior canal BPPV. 25. Individuals with impaired vestibular system function are most likely to experience a loss of balance on the foam and dome test, or the Clinical Test of Sensory Integration and Balance (CTSIB), when information from the _______ is/are altered during testing. A. Spinal reticular system B. Visual system C. Somatosensory system D. Somatosensory and visual systems 26. Your patient is a 45-year-old female with complaints of right shoulder pain and paresthesias running down her right arm. No specific dermatome. Symptoms have been increasing in the past 3 months and now are continuous in nature. She has a history of smoking but quit 3 years ago. Her shoulder pain increases at night, as do her arm symptoms. She reports that in recent months she has been feeling tired more frequently and has been losing weight. What pathology is mostly likely the source of the patient's symptoms? A. Cancer B. Rotator cuff tear C. Cervical radiculopathy D. Thoracic outlet syndrome 27. An 18-year-old male was involved in a motorcycle accident and has sustained a traumatic brain injury. The patient is starting to squeeze the therapist's hand upon command, beginning to recognize his mother, and withdraws to pain. The patient is at what stage on the Rancho Los Amigos Levels of Cognitive Functioning? A. II-generalized response B. III-localized response C. IV-confused-agitated D. V-confused-inappropriate, nonagitated 28. You will be performing an examination on a 20-week-old female and will be completing the Peabody Developmental Motor Scale to determine the severity of developmental delay. In order to accurately score the patient, you must determine if the patient was born premature. During your examination, you learn that the patient was born at 32 weeks' gestation. What is the patient's corrected/adjusted age? A. No adjustment is needed for this patient. B. The patient's corrected/adjusted age 10 weeks. C. The patient's corrected/adjusted age 12 weeks. D. The patient's corrected/adjusted age 14 weeks. 29. A patient requires examination 4 months following treatment for breast cancer and mastectomy. She is complaining of chest, arm, and shoulder pain with overhead activities. Which of the following conditions is most likely the source of her pain? A. Torn rotator cuff B. Adhesive capsulitis C. Cervical pathology D. Recurrence of the breast cancer 30. You observe that your patient walks with the spine in extension (increased lumbar lordosis). This could be due to all of the following except A. Tight semitendinosis B. Tight rectus femoris C. Tight psoas major D. Weak gluteus maximus

Fortinberry

[5] 31. During normal gait, in single-limb stance, A. The center of mass is at its highest point B. Potential energy is at a low point C. Kinetic energy is at its highest point D. The magnitude of the ground reaction force is always greater than body weight 32. Which of the following is false regarding osteoarthritis? A. The initial biochemical changes include loss of proteoglycan and loosening of the collagen matrix. B. In severe cases, ulnar deviation of the metacarpophalangeal joints is observed. C. Later changes include cartilage thinning and joint space narrowing. D. In severe cases, total joint replacements are a realistic treatment option. . 33. During a home health visit, the physical therapist observed several items that require modification in the home of an elderly patient. In terms of priority, the environmental hazard that needs the most immediate attention is A. The cracked toilet seat B. A malfunctioning thermostat C. A throw rug D. A cluttered kitchen 34. A 55-year-old patient sees a physical therapist for an examination of upper extremity function 1 week after Botox to the patient's finger flexors in the right upper extremity. The patient had a stroke 1 year ago and is continuing to work on increasing function. During your examination you find that you are unable to fully extend the wrist and the fingers. One of the goals you establish with the patient is to increase ROM in this area. The best way to achieve this goal is by A. AROM B. PROM C. Splinting to provide low load prolonged stretch D. Stretching and weight bearing 35. A physical therapist is treating a patient with a Colles fracture. The patient's forearm has been immobilized for 3 weeks and will require 4 additional weeks in the cast before the patient can begin functional tasks. An initial focus of treatment should be A. Passive ROM (PROM) B. Placement of the extremity in a sling C. Movement of the joints surrounding the fracture D. To avoid treatment until the cast is removed 36. During a treatment session, the physical therapist observes that the patient can flex the affected shoulder through its full ROM in a side-lying position. The PT should progress to activities that place the extremity in A. A gravity-assisted position B. A gravity-eliminated position C. A neutral position D. An antigravity position 37. Which activity of daily living (ADL) activity would the PT caution a patient with a recent hip replacement to avoid? A. Tying shoes B. Pulling up pants C. Putting on shirt D. Bathing the back 38. During a treatment session, the PT simulates the need for the client to walk up stairs to a kitchen with a painful/weak left leg. The patient should be instructed to move the A. Left leg up to the next step with the cane B. Right leg up to the next step with the cane C. Right leg up and then his left leg/cane D. Left leg up and then his right leg/cane

Fortinberry

[6] 39. You are working with a 53-year-old client who has had a right CVA. The patient is lying on a therapy mat, and you are performing passive ROM to her left arm. Once you have the patient's arm in 90 degrees of flexion, the patient complains of some discomfort and pain. The best course of action would be to A. Continue as tolerated, because passive ROM must be maintained B. Begin the ROM again and make sure the scapula is gliding C. Continue and do not go past the point of pain D. Consult an orthopedic specialist 40. The BEST strategy to use with a contracted joint that has a soft end field is to A. Perform tendon gliding exercises B. Apply low-load, long duration stretch C. Use a quick stretch technique D. Perform active ROM 41. Which of the following is considered an absolute contraindication to manipulation? A. Smoking and hypertension B. Whiplash injury C. Birth control pills and smoking D. Acute myelopathy 42. Which of the following disc herniations would you expect to respond MOST favorably to traction therapy? A. Medial to the nerve root B. Lateral to the nerve root C. Anterior to the nerve root D. Posterior to the nerve root 43. For the best protection of lumbar mechanics, the driver's car seat should be positioned A. As far from the steering wheel as possible B. With the front of the seat lower than the back of the seat C. With the entire seat bottom level with the floor of the car D. As close to the steering wheel as practical 44. A pitcher is exercising in a clinic with a sports cord mounted behind and above his head. The pitcher simulates the pitching motion using the sports cord as resistance. Which proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) diagonal is the pitcher using to strengthen the muscles involved in pitching a baseball? A. D1 extension B. D1 flexion C. D2 extension D. D2 flexion 45. A therapist is mobilizing a patient's right shoulder. The movement taking place at the joint capsule is not completely to end range. It is a large-amplitude movement from near the beginning of available range to near the end of available range. What grade mobilization, according to Maitland, is being performed? A. Grade I B. Grade II C. Grade III D. Grade IV 46. A 29-year-old woman is referred to a therapist with a diagnosis of recurrent ankle sprains. The patient has a history of several inversion ankle sprains within the past year. No edema or redness is noted at this time. Which of the following is the best treatment plan? A. Gastrocnemius stretching, ankle strengthening, and ice B. Rest, ice, compression, elevation, and ankle strengthening C. Ankle strengthening and a proprioception program D. Rest, ice, compression, elevation, and gastrocnemius stretching

Fortinberry

[7] 47. The therapist is treating a male patient for a second-degree acromioclavicular sprain. The patient has just finished the doctor's prescription of 3 sessions/week for 4 weeks. The therapist is treating the patient with iontophoresis (driving dexamethasone), deltoid-strengthening exercises, pectoral-strengthening exercises, and ice. The patient reports no decline in pain level since the initial examination. Which of the following is the best course of action for the therapist? A. Phone the doctor and request continued physical therapy. B. Tell the patient to go back to the doctor because he is not making appropriate progress. C. Discharge the patient because he will improve on his own. D. Take the problem to the supervisor of the facility. 48. A therapist working in an outpatient physical therapy clinic examines a patient with a diagnosis of rotator cuff bursitis. The physician's order is to examine and treat. During the examination the following facts are revealed: Active shoulder flexion = 85 degrees with pain; Passive shoulder flexion = 177 degrees; Active shoulder abduction = 93 degrees with pain; Passive shoulder abduction = 181 degrees; Active external rotation = 13 degrees with pain; Passive eternal rotation = 87 degrees; Drop arm test = positive; Impingement test = negative; Biceps tendon subluxation test = negative; Sulcus sign = negative. Of the following, which is the best course of action? A. Treat the patient for 1 week with moist heat application, joint mobilization, and strengthening. Then suggest to the patient that he or she return to the physician if there are no positive results. B. Treat the patient for 1 week with ultrasound, strengthening, and ice. Then suggest to the patient that he or she return to the physician if there are no po...