Micro. Ch. 16- 18 Exam Review Questions PDF

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Infectious Disease affecting the skin and eyes, infectious diseseases affecting the nervous system, Infectious Diseases Affecting the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems...

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BIO 240: Final Exam Review, Part I, Ch. 16- 18 Chapter 16

Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes

1) What group of microorganisms do not usually call the skin "home"? A) Streptococcus B) Corynebacterium C) Propionibacterium D) Yeasts E) All of the choices are correct. Answer: A 2) What enzyme is not found in Staphylococcus epidermidis but is found in Staphylococcus aureus? A) Peroxidase B) Catalase C) Lysozyme D) Coagulase E) Lipase Answer: D 3) The enzyme that coagulates plasma is ________. A) catalase B) coagulase C) hyaluronidase D) staphylokinase E) kinase Answer: B 4) Staphylococcus can be differentiated from Streptococcus by the ________. A) Gram stain B) coagulase test C) catalase test D) fermentation of mannitol E) None of the choices are correct. Answer: C 5) Impetigo is caused by ________. A) Propionibacterium acnes B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Streptococcus pyogenes E) both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes Answer: E

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6) MRSAs are Staphylococcus aureus strains that are ________. A) resistant to mupirocin B) responsive to mupirocin C) resistant to penicillin derivatives D) responsive to penicillin derivatives E) related to Streptococcus pyogenes Answer: C 7) Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following except ________. A) meningitis B) furuncles and carbuncles C) impetigo D) scalded skin syndrome E) acne Answer: E 8) Streptococcus pyogenes causes all of the following except ________. A) necrotizing fasciitis B) erysipelas C) impetigo D) scarlet fever E) scalded skin syndrome Answer: E 9) Which of the following is not true of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)? A) Affects mostly newborns and babies B) An exotoxin-mediated disease C) Toxin causes lesions D) Split in skin occurs between the dermis and epidermis E) Split in skin occurs within the epidermis Answer: D 10) Chickenpox ________. A) is transmitted by droplet contact B) lesion distribution is centripetal C) has an incubation of 10 to 20 days D) has fever and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops E) All of the choices are correct. Answer: E 11) If a person who has never been infected with the varicella zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, the first person will come down with ________. A) herpes labialis B) shingles C) chickenpox D) infectious mononucleosis Answer: C 2

12) Which is incorrect about the MMR immunization? A) Contains attenuated virus B) Contains toxoids C) Is given in early childhood D) Protects against three different viral diseases E) None of the choices are correct. Answer: B 13) All of the following pertain to measles (rubeola) except ________. A) it is transmitted by direct contact with the rash B) humans are the only reservoir for the pathogen C) secondary bacterial otitis media and sinusitis can occur D) dry cough, sore throat, fever, and conjunctivitis are symptoms Answer: A 14) Measles is also known as ________. A) rubella B) shingles C) rubeola D) fifth disease E) varicella Answer: C 15) This febrile disease with a rash has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage. A) Croup B) Mumps C) Influenza D) Measles (rubeola) E) Rubella Answer: E 16) Rubella is ________. A) caused by the measles virus (Morbillivirus) B) a very contagious disease C) associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects D) seen as high fever, severe sore throat, severe cough, and myalgia E) All of the choices are correct. Answer: C 17) Which form of anthrax involves a black area/ sore on the skin? A) Pulmonary B) Gastrointestinal C) Cutaneous D) All of the choices are correct. Answer: C 3

18) What is the only way to prevent conjunctivitis? A) Wear insect repellent B) Good hygiene C) Acyclovir treatment D) Prophylactic antibiotics Answer: B 19) True or False? Varicella and herpes zoster are caused by the same virus. Answer: TRUE 20) True or False? Impetigo involves itching papules that break and form a very contagious yellow crust. Answer: TRUE 21) True or False? The eye generally has a large percentage of normal biota present. Answer: FALSE A mother brings her 7-year-old daughter to her pediatrician's office. It is written in the patient's chart that she is not immunized. The child has approximately 50 lesions, mainly concentrated on her trunk. Most of the lesions are vesicular, but a few have scabbed over. According to the mother, her daughter was previously healthy and developed this rash about five days ago. She denies any fevers and the rash appears to be persistently itchy. The RN observes the child itch open a vesicle, revealing a clear fluid. 22) Based upon the patient's symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is ________. A) smallpox B) chickenpox C) shingles D) measles Answer: B 23) The mother requests antibiotics to treat her daughter's infection. What is the most appropriate action by the RN? A) Advocate that the physician write a prescription for oral amoxicillin because the spread of the infectious lesions can be slowed by a broad-spectrum antibiotic. B) Inform the mother that her daughter needs an antiviral prescription, not an antibiotic, to treat the infection. C) Educate the mother she can purchase a triple-antibiotic ointment to apply to the lesions three times daily. D) Educate the mother that chickenpox does not respond to antibiotics, but is self-limiting and will heal on its own. Answer: D

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24) The child shares a bedroom with her younger brother, who has not been vaccinated against or infected with chickenpox. He is supposed to go to summer camp in one week. The mother asks if it is safe to let him go to camp. How would the nurse best respond? A) Yes, it is safe for him to go. Since chickenpox has an incubation period of 3–5 days, he would have exhibited symptoms of the disease already if he had contracted it. B) Yes, it is safe for him to go. Chickenpox is rarely contracted by children younger than 7 years of age. C) No, it is not safe for him to go. Since chickenpox has an incubation period of 10–20 days, he could begin exhibiting symptoms at camp. D) No, it is not safe for him to go. Since he was exposed to his sister, he will be contagious to other kids at camp even without exhibiting symptoms. Answer: C A mother brings her 8-year-old daughter into an urgent care clinic. The child has a dry, flaky, and peeling rash around her mouth. The mother states she has treated the rash with a number of different lotions, but the lesions persist. She is looking for information on how to make her daughter stop licking her lips, as she thinks this is causing the lesions. Upon assessment, the nurse notes blisters and honey-colored crusts. In the medical history, the mother reports her daughter has not had any other symptoms, including fever, nausea, vomiting, and malaise. 25) The provider orders a specimen to be obtained for microbial analysis. What is the most appropriate site to culture in this case? A) The lesion itself, since there seems to be a superficial infection. B) The posterior pharynx, since the tonsils are likely the primary source of infection. C) The blood, since the infection was probably carried systemically. D) The urine, since the kidneys are probably removing bacterial casts from the body. Answer: A 26) In the lab, the specimen is Gram-stained and inoculated onto blood agar. Microscopic analysis of the slide reveals gram-positive cocci arranged in grapelike clusters, while the blood agar produces round, creamy colonies with clear areas of hemolysis. Which of the following would be the most likely causative organism? A) Streptococcus pyogenes B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Human herpesvirus 3 D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa Answer: B 27) The lab results indicate that the coagulase test was performed. Which result would be consistent with a diagnosis of S. aureus infection? A) The sample remains liquid B) The sample completely coagulates C) The sample turns yellow and coagulates D) The sample turns yellow and remains liquid Answer: B

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28) The lesions are diagnosed as S. aureus impetigo. The nurse is educating the mother about why her daughter's affected skin seems so fragile and blisters easily. Which of the following statements is most appropriate? A) The constant exposure to moisture makes your daughter's skin very fragile, and blistering is the natural response. B) Your daughter's scratching irritates the skin, making it very fragile and irritable. C) The blood beneath the surface of the skin is broken down by waste products from S. aureus, and superficial blisters are the clinical sign. D) An exotoxin produced by S. aureus targets a protein responsible for cell-to-cell binding, and blisters are the result. Answer: D A school nurse at a public elementary school notes a number of students presenting to his office with similar symptoms. The students are complaining of itchy, watery eyes with white, milky drainage. They appear to have red and inflamed sclera and conjunctiva. Some students report the symptoms in both eyes, while others are experiencing it in one eye. A number of the students report that they woke up the feeling that their eyes were "glued-shut." 29) Based on the reported symptoms and clinical findings, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A) Keratitis B) Neonatal conjunctivitis C) Bacterial conjunctivitis D) Viral conjunctivitis E) The discharge must be cultured to make a diagnosis. Answer: C Chapter 17

Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System

1) The normal biota of the CNS consists of ________. A) Neisseria meningitidis B) herpes simplex I C) herpes simplex II D) Streptococcus agalactiae E) The CNS has no normal biota. Answer: E 2) All of the following pertain to Neisseria meningitidis except ________. A) virulent factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease B) causes a serious meningitis C) reservoir is the nasopharynx of human carriers D) more easily transmitted in day care facilities, dorms, and military barracks E) common cause of bacterial pneumonia Answer: E

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3) Which of the following is a sign of meningitis? A) Headache B) Stiff neck C) White blood cells in cerebrospinal fluid D) Fever E) All of the choices are correct. Answer: E 4) Neisseria meningitidis is transmitted by ________. A) casual contact B) close contact C) intimate contact D) indirect contact E) fomites Answer: B 5) Which of the following is not true of Streptococcus pneumoniae? A) Most frequent cause of community-acquired meningitis B) Has a polysaccharide capsule that resists phagocytosis C) Produces alpha-hemolysin and hydrogen peroxide D) Small gram-positive flattened coccus E) Responds well to penicillin Answer: E 6) The virulence of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is associated with its ________. A) fimbriae B) neurotoxin C) enterotoxin D) capsule E) None of the choices are correct. Answer: D 7) The organism responsible for the majority of neonatal meningitis is ________. A) Streptococcus agalactiae B) Escherichia coli K1 C) Listeria monocytogenes D) Haemophilus influenzae E) Neisseria meningitidis Answer: A

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8) Encephalitis is most commonly caused by a ________. A) bacteria B) protozoan C) virus D) helminth E) All of the choices are correct. Answer: C 9) Which organism is the definitive host for Toxoplasma gondii? A) Cat B) Dog C) Mouse D) Mosquito E) Raccoon Answer: A 10) Toxoplasmosis prevention includes ________. A) vaccination of humans B) vaccination of cats C) hygienic precautions D) vector control E) All of the choices are correct. Answer: C 11) Spongiform encephalopathies are ________. A) associated with abnormal, transmissible protein in the brain B) chronic, fatal infections of the nervous system C) caused by prions D) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, kuru, and Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome E) All of the choices are correct. Answer: E 12) Which of the following is not a prion disease? A) vCJD B) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy D) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis E) All of the choices are prion diseases. Answer: D

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13) Which is incorrect about rabies? A) Is a zoonotic disease B) Wild populations of bats, skunks, raccoons, cats, and canines are primary reservoirs C) Transmission can involve bites, scratches, and inhalation D) Average incubation in human is 1 week E) Symptoms include anxiety, agitation, muscle spasms, convulsions, and paralysis Answer: D 14) All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis except ________. A) summer outbreaks in the United States have been increasing recently B) transmitted primarily by fecal-contaminated water C) can be asymptomatic or mild with headache, sore throat, fever, and nausea D) if virus enters the central nervous system motor, neurons can be infected and destroyed E) caused by enterovirus Answer: A 15) The preferred preventative measure for polio in the United States is ________. A) inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV) developed by Jonas Salk B) oral poliovirus vaccine (OPV) developed by Jonas Salk C) inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV) developed by Albert Sabin D) oral poliovirus vaccine (OPV) developed by Albert Sabin Answer: A 16) Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction is a characteristic of ________. A) Clostridium botulinum B) Clostridium perfringens C) Clostridium difficile D) Clostridium tetani E) All of the choices are correct. Answer: D 17) The foodborne disease that involves neurotoxin is ________. A) gastrointestinal anthrax B) bacillus cereus intoxication C) botulism D) clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis E) All of the choices are correct. Answer: C 18) Tetanus differs from botulism in that ________. A) tetanus results in flaccid paralysis while botulism paralysis is rigid B) tetanus results from an exotoxin; botulism results from an endotoxin C) there is a vaccine for botulism, but not for tetanus D) muscles cannot relax in tetanus; muscles cannot contract in botulism E) All of the choices are correct. Answer: D 9

19) True or False? Prions can be destroyed by autoclaving. Answer: FALSE 20) True or False? Tetanus can be prevented with the DTaP childhood immunization and boosters of the tetanus toxoid. Answer: TRUE 21) True or False? Answer: FALSE

Botulism is often referred to as lockjaw.

22) Which of the following statements regarding the microbiome of the nervous system is true? A) In the healthy state, the nervous system is believed to be free from microorganisms. B) In its latent state, the herpesvirus is considered to be part of the microbiome of the nervous system. C) The nervous system develops without any influence from microbes inhabiting other tissues. D) Defense mechanisms of the CNS include competition for nutrients and space between pathogens and the normal microbiota within the tissues. Answer: A 23) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the characteristics of Zika virus disease? A) Individuals who live in mosquito-infested areas can be administered a vaccine as prevention. B) The Zika virus can be transmitted via a mosquito vector, sexually from an infected partner, and vertically from mother to fetus during gestation. C) Females who are infected with Zika during pregnancy are at risk of having a child with microcephaly. D) Zika virus is an RNA virus in the family Flaviviridae. Answer: A A 20-year-old female college student is admitted to the intensive care unit from the emergency department. The patient lives in a dormitory at her university and her roommate brought her to the hospital because "she is not acting like herself." The patient was previously healthy to the roommate's knowledge, involved in campus activities, and an excellent student. The RN collects the patient's history of present illness from her roommate. About two weeks prior, the patient began feeling ill. She had nasal congestion and was diagnosed with a sinus infection at the student health clinic. However, the patient reportedly decided against taking the prescribed antibiotics because she did not believe they were necessary. She developed high fevers and one day ago began complaining of a stiff neck. That morning, she was more lethargic, making nonsensical statements, and had a fever of 105°F. Her roommate was frightened by her change in behavior and drove her to the hospital. 24) Based upon the patient's clinical presentation and course of illness, what is the most likely diagnosis? A) Septicemia, secondary to sinus infection B) Meningitis C) Tumor of the cervical spine D) Necrotizing encephalitis Answer: B 10

25) A lumbar puncture is performed, which confirms a diagnosis of meningitis. The pathology report indicates that the cerebral spinal fluid sample was found to have gram-positive cocci in pairs and the patient is diagnosed with pneumococcus. What is the causative organism? A) Streptococcus pneumoniae B) Neisseria meningitides C) Haemophilus influenzae D) Listeria monocytogenes Answer: A 26) Based upon the patient's symptoms, which of the following tests is most important to obtain a diagnosis? A) CT scan B) Chest X-ray C) Complete blood count D) Lumbar puncture Answer: D 27) How is the poliovirus transmitted? A) Fecal-oral B) Arthropod C) Respiratory droplets D) Undercooked food Answer: A Chapter 18

Infectious Diseases Affecting the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems

1) ________ occurs when bacteria flourish and grow in the bloodstream. A) Viremia B) Fungemia C) Hemovirus D) Bacteremia E) Septicemia Answer: E 2) The common causative agent of acute endocarditis is ________. A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Streptococcus pneumoniae C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae E) All of the choices are correct. Answer: E

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3) Acute endocarditis is most commonly contracted through ________. A) ingestion B) parenteral entry C) casual contact D) droplets E) fomites Answer: B 4) Most cases of septicemia are caused by ________. A) fungi B) viruses C) prions D) bacteria E) protozoans Answer: D 5) Which of the following is not true of septicemia? A) Fever and shaking chills B) Respiratory acidosis C) Endotoxic shock D) Parenteral transfer E) Drop in blood pressure Answer: B 6) Yersinia pestis ________. A) was virulent in the Middle Ages but is no longer virulent B) has humans as an endemic reservoir C) does not respond to antimicrobial drugs D) is usually transmitted by a flea vector E) All of the choices are correct. Answer: D 7) All of the following are associated with bubonic plague except ________. A) transmitted by human feces B) caused by Yersinia pestis C) patient often has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes D) patient has fever, headache, nausea, and weakness E) can progress to a septicemia Answer: A 8) Which is incorrect about Yersinia pestis? A) Exhibits bipolar staining B) Gram-negative rod C) Transmitted by fleas D) Produces enterotoxin Answer: D 12

9) Plague includes ________. A) septicemic form; called Black Death B) bubonic form; buboes develop C) pneumonic form; sputum highly contagious D) disease control; control of rodent population E) All of the choices are correct. Answer: E 10) Bubonic plague is transmitted by ________. A) mosquitos B) flies C) animal bites D) sexual contact E) fleas Answer: E 11) Erythema migrans, a bull's-eye rash, at the portal of entry is associated with ________. A) plague B) Rocky Mountain spotted fever C) Q fever D) Lyme disease E) yellow fever Answer: D 12) The white-footed mouse, deer, and deer ticks are important to maintaining the transmission cycle associated with ________. A) Lyme disease B) yellow fever C) Q fever D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever E) plague Answer: A 13) Lyme disease involves ________. A) early symptoms of fever, headache, and stiff neck B) crippling arthritis, and cardiovascular and neurological problems C) people having contact with ticks D) All of the choices are correct. Answer: D 14) Lyme disease is transmitted by ________. A) flies B) lice C) fleas D) ticks Answer: D 13

15) Epstein-Barr virus has the following characteristics except it _...