Ortho-BEQs - N/A PDF

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1. What is the last movement in Posselt’s envelope when closing? a. Hinge b. translation 2. What usually happens if you seat the mandible from CO to CR? a. decrease the vertical dimension b. increase the vertical dimension 3. How many mm can a patient open if they have a closed lock? a. 42mm b. 60mm c. 11mm d. 23mm 4. What is an alternative to heat sterilization? a. phenol b. ethylene oxide c. gluteraldehyde 5. When extracting maxillary first bi’s only and leaving the molars in Class II…. a. also leave the maxillary first molars mesially rotated b. tip the maxillary first molar crowns mesially c. do not close all the extraction space d. also extract the mandibular first bi’s 6. Which has no proprioceptors? a. Pulp b. muscles c. TMJ 7. What can manifest itself as myositis? a. Osteosarcoma b. condensing osteitis c. osteomyelitis 8. What causes the rotation of the head? a. occiput b. C1 c. C2

9. In the primary dentition, a terminal plane occlusion usually turns into… a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III 10. When superimposing on the mandible, what do you not superimpose on?

a. symphysis b. angle of the mandible c. the mandibular canal d. mental foramen e. inferior crypt of 3rd molar 11. What happens in arch length from deciduous to permanent dentition when measuring from the mesial of the first molars? a. increases a lot b. increases a little c. decreases a lot d. decreases a little 12. Where are the primate spaces? a. mesial to maxillary canine and distal to mandibular canine b. distal to maxillary and mandibular lateral incisors c. distal to maxillary and mandibular canines d. mesial to maxillary lateral incisors and distal to mandibular canine 13. How many degrees are there normally between S-N and FH? a. 2 b. 4 c. 7 d. 9 14. How many branches are there of CN VII? a. 2 b. 4 c. 5 d. 7 15. What develops from tuberculum impar? a. Thyroid b. thymus c. tongue 16. What shows the rotational growth of the mandible? a. bending of canal and condylar neck angle b. increase in vertical dimension c. increase in the length of the mandible 17. What comes from Meckel’s cartilage? a. maxilla b. tuberculum impar c. CN VI d. Malleus 18. What does not occur in hyalinization?

a. physiologic tooth movement b. bone resorption c. pdl resorption d. medullary resorption 19. What is Peak Velocity Height? a. maximal growth spurt from birth to puberty b. birth to 2 years c. conception to birth d. from puberty for up to 24 months after 20. What is a diagnostic tool to distinguish between skeletal, sexual and PVH maturity? a. plaster models b. hand/wrist film c. PA ceph d. Photographs 21. How many bones are in the craniofacial complex? a. 8 b. 14 c. 20 d. 22 22. Assessment of the ANB angle gives A. Soft tissue profile B. Vertical jaw discrepancy C. Sagittal jaw discrepancy D. Dental pattern

23. Which of the following statement defines ‘Sunday Bite’ A. Under-closure of the jaw B. Posturing of mandible to Class III due to a premature contact C. Posturing the mandible back to Class II when actually in Class I D. Habitual forward posturing of mandible to Class I 24. Which of the following statement is CORRECT regarding tooth impaction? • The longer the tooth is impacted more is the chance of it getting ankylosed • The most commonly impacted tooth is permanent mandibular canine A. Both statements are Correct B. Both statements are Incorrect C. The first statement is correct while the second statement is incorrect D. The first statement is incorrect while the second statement is correct 25. Which of the following term is normally used to describe the deciduous molar relationship? A. Step relationship B. Class relationship C. Occlusion relationship

D. Primitive relationship 1. When looking at a ceph, what is level with Frankfort Horizontal? a. zygomatic arch b. Go-Gn c. S-N d. ANS-PNS 2. Where are the primate spaces? a. mesial to maxillary canine and distal to mandibular canine b. distal to maxillary and mandibular lateral incisors c. distal to maxillary and mandibular canines d. mesial to maxillary lateral incisors and distal to mandibular canine 3. What shows the rotational growth of the mandible? a. bending of canal and condylar neck angle b. increase in vertical dimension c. increase in the length of the mandible 4. What does not occur in hyalinization? a. physiologic tooth movement b. bone resorption c. pdl resorption d. medullary resorption 5. What is Peak Velocity Height? a. maximal growth spurt from birth to puberty b. birth to 2 years c. conception to birth d. from puberty for up to 24 months after 6. When wouldn’t you level the curve of spee? a. In maxillary downfracture surgery b. In mandibular surgery c. All of the above d. None of the above 7. What are some possible causes of a cleft palate? a. Heredity b. Drugs c. All of the above d. None of the above 8. When does a cleft palate form? a. 2 weeks b. 6 weeks c. 11 weeks d. 20 weeks

9. Which of the following best characterizes a skeletal crossbite? a. Maxillary molars tipped lingual, mandibular molars tipped buccal b. Maxillary molars tipped buccal, mandibular molars tipped lingual c. All of the above d. None of the above 10. On an articulator, change in the anterior-posterior is controlled by what? a. Condylar angulation b. Bennett angle c. Either angle 11. How long does it take for the apex of a root to close? a. 6 months b. 1 year c. 2-3 years d. 5 years 12. What is the time that the spheno-occipital synchondrosis unites? a. 8 to 10 years b. 10 to 12 years c. 12 to 14 years d. 15 to 16 years Answer: b. 10 to 12 years 13. The fibrocartilage between the temporal area and basion around the occipital condyle and functions: a. For lateral growth b. For frontal growth c. For cushioning any direct forces or to protect from pressure of transfer forces 14. A patient with no spacing of the deciduous dentition will have a. Crowding in the permanent dentition b. Normal permanent dentition c. Spacing of the permanent dentition d. A Class III malocclusion

15. Incisor liability refers to a. The space needed for the maxillary incisors b. The proclination of the maxillary incisors c. The retroclination of the maxillary incisors 16. What does not happen during tooth eruption a. Elongation of the roots b. Occlusal movement c. Mesial movement d. Growth of the alveolar bone e. Resorption of deciduous tooth roots

17. Cephalometrics is best used to determine a. Skeletal pattern b. Dental pattern c. Dental pattern related to the skeletal pattern d. None of the above

18. The mandibular growth rate in females has been found to be: a. Twice as large for 14 to 16 year olds when compared to 16 to 20 year olds b. Similar for 14 to 16 year olds when compared to 16 to 20 year olds c. Primarily in the mandibular plane area d. Greater in vertical growth than in anterior-posterior 19. Maxillary incisor retraction during orthodontic treatment leads to: i. Forward mandibular displacement ii. Distal mandibular displacement iii. Condylar displacement iv. Growth of the nose and chin a) i and iv b) ii and iii c) iv only d) None of the above

20. At what point does the palate close in fetal life? a. 2 weeks b. 6 weeks c. 12 weeks d. 20 weeks

21. The limit of maxillary expansion is dictated by a. The amount of tipping you can get by the teeth b. Nothing, you can get all the expansion you want c. Zygomatic arches d. How large the palatal suture is

22. From where do cells for bone deposition originate? a. Osteoclasts b. Blood c. Mesenchymal cells d. Chondrocytes

23. What two bones meet at Articulare? (Ar: the point of intersection between the shadow of the zygomatic arch and the posterior border of the mandibular ramus) a. zygomatic bone

b. mandible c. sphenoid d. temporal 24. When looking at a ceph, what is level with Frankfort Horizontal? a. zygomatic arch b. Go-Gn c. S-N d. ANS-PNS 25. Which type of occlusion is least common? A. Normal occlusion B. Class I malocclusion C. Class II malocclusion D. Class III malocclusion 1. It exhibits greatest amount of postnatal growth A. Maxilla B. Mandible C. Zygoma D. Condyle 2. Bone resorption of the ramus is at the A. Anterior border B. Posterior border C. Anter—posterior border D. None of the above 3. Bone deposition of the ramus is at the A. Anterior border B. Posterior border C. Antero-posterior border D. None of the above 4. Apposition in the chin occurs in the A. Anterior aspect B. Posterior aspect C. Inferior aspect D. None of the above 5. On the lingual side of the angle of the mandible, deposition takes place on the A. Antero-posterior aspect B. Antero-superior aspect C. Postero-inferior aspect D. None of the above 6. Growth following the “V” principle A. Gonial angle

B. Condyle C. Body of the mandible D. Coronoid process 7. It is the most caudal point in the outline of the synthesis A. Sella B. Menton C. Pterygomaxillary fissure D. Porion 8. It is the midpoint on the upper edge of the porus acoustics externus located by means of the metal rods on the cephalometer A. Sella B. Menton C. Pterygomaxillary fissure D. Porion 9. A plane that connects the lowest point of the orbit to the superior point of the external auditory meatus. A. S-N plane B. F-H plane C. Occlusal plane D. Palatal plane 10. A line from the anterior point of the frontonasal suture to the most anterior point of the mandible A. A-Pog line B. Facial plane C. Facial axis D. E-plane 11. It is a line between the most anterior point point of the soft tissue, nose & chin A. A-Pog line B. Facial plane C. Facial axis D. E-plane 12. Deep bites are later reduced by A. Attrition of incisors B. Eruption of deciduous molar C. Forward movement of the mandible due to growth D. All of the above 13. Refers to an occlusion that deviated in one or more ways from ideal yet well adapted to that particular environment A. Physiological occlusion B. Functional occlusion C. Ideal occlusion D. Balanced occlusion

14. Simultaneous even contact between maxillary and mandibular teeth into maximum interdigitation with the mandible in centric relation A. Vertical Relation of Occlusion B. Centric Relation Occlusion C. Centric Occlusion D. Canine Protected Occlusion 15. Is an abnormal occlusal stress, which is capable of producing or has produced an injury to the periodontium A. Trauma from occlusion B. Traumatic occlusion C. Both A and B D. None of the above 16. It is defined as periodontal tissue injury caused by occlusal forces through abnormal occlusal contacts A. Trauma from occlusion B. Traumatic occlusion C. Both A and B D. None of the above 17. When viewed from the buccal aspect, the cusp tips of posterior teeth follow a gradual concave curve antero-posteriorly. A. Curve of Spee B. Curve of Wilson C. Crest of Curvature D. None of the above 18. Highest point of a curve or greater convexity or bulge A. Curve of Spee B. Curve of Wilson C. Crest of Curvature D. None of the above 19. Refers to condition where one more teeth may be abnormally malposed bucally, lingually or labially with reference to the opposing tooth. A. Crossbite B. Scissor bite C. Both A and B D. None of the above 20. These includes habits that are not associated with any deep-rooted psychological problems A. Useful habits B. Harmful habits C. Empty habits D. Meaningful habits 21. This method involves the extraction of the deciduous first molars at 8 years of age.

A. Dewel’s Method B. Tweed’s Method C. Nance Method D. Grewe’s Method 22. It is a type of pseudo class III malocclusion in which the mandible is forced in forward position of its true centric relation A. Dentoalveolar Anterior Crossbite B. Skeletal Anterior Crossbite C. Functional Anterior Crossbite D. None of the above 23. Treated by tongue blade therapy and catlan’s appliance A. Dentoalveolar Anterior Crossbite B. Skeletal Anterior Crossbite C. Functional Anterior Crossbite D. None of the above 24. Force applied in the teeth get interrupted when the appliance is inactive A. Continuous force B. Interrupted force C. Intermittent force D. None of the above 25. This type of space maintainer is given when there is premature loss of primary second molar and the permanent molars have not erupted fully to support a band. A. Band and Loop Space Maintainer B. Reverse Band and Loop Space Maintainer C. Band and Bar Space Maintainer D. Crown and Loop Space Maintainer 1. Developmental physiologic events used to predict skeletal growth spurts are: 1. Increase in height 2. Monarche

3. Increase in weight 4. Ossification of the adductor sesamoid

a. 1,3,4 b. 1,2,3

c. 1,2 d. 1,2,4

2. A distance between the maxillary central incisors at age 8 should be treated by: a. Leaving it alone b. Surgical excision of the labial frenum

c. Hawley appliance d. Taking a radiograph to rule out fibrous frenum

3. A method of predicting the size of the succedaneous teeth and the space available in the arch is:

a. Bolton analysis b. Mixed dentition analysis

c. Tanaka and Johnson analysis d. Peck and Peck analysis

4. Malocclusion in the primary dentition caused by oral habit with an intense degree are usually corrected until age a. As soon as possible b. 3

c. 4 d. 5

5. Hand-wrist radiographs are taken as orthodontic diagnostic aids to a. Determine the amount of growth of the child b. Find out the degree of the bone calcification

c. Establish the age of the child d. Determine if the age of the child has no systemic condition

6. The most retruded and posterior position of the condyles is: a. Centric relation b. All of these

c. Centric position d. Centric occlusion

7. The long face syndrome is most always associated with: a. Nail biting b. Mouth breathing

c. Tongue thrusting d. Depression

8. The malocclusion characterized by a narrowing of the arch, protruding incisors accompanied by abnormal function of the lips is a. Class I division 2 b. Class III division 2

c. Class II division 1 d. Class I division 2

9. The first teeth to be extracted in a serial extraction in a crowded arch as the permanent incisors erupt: a. Primary lateral incisors b. Permanent lateral incisors

c. First primary molars d. Primary canines

10. The theory of bone formation that states that in the presence of load sufficient to bend the surface of the bone on the convex side stimulates osteoclastic activity while on the surface osteoblastic activity is stimulated is the a. Law of osteogenesis b. Long bone growth theory

c. V-principal of bone growth d. Law of electrogenesis

11. An index used to analyse the proportionality of tooth size in the maxillary and mandibular arches is

a. Mixed dentition analysis b. Peck and Peck’s index

c. Bolton’s analysis d. Holdway ratio

12. In the early loss of the mandibular primary molars, the mandibular 1st permanent molar usually comes, mesially tipped and more likely shows a lingual tipping. This is due to the: a. Strong action of the cheeks b. Absence of space maintainer

c. Absence of lingual root d. Absence of the primary second deciduous molar

13. Tipping movement is successful during the age range bet. 5-8 years among what anomalies a. Infraverted b. Simple single malposed teeth

c. Rotated teeth d. Supraverted

14. What factors increase maxillary arch perimeter? a. Adjustment of the maxilla in relation with cranial base b. Increase in length and depth of the maxillary bone

c. Angulation of maxillary permanent incisors and increase in width of the maxillary d. All of the above

15. An important preventive orthodontic measure in the primary dentition is a. All of these b. Placing space maintainers

c. Proper restoration of primary molars specially the interproximal spaces d. Placing space regainer

16. If the mandibular primary cuspids are to be extracted because of caries: a. The space should be maintained with the lingual holding arch b. The space will provide just enough space for the alignment of the mandibular lateral

c. The space should be maintained with the bilateral band and loop d. It can be left unattended because it is in the anterior segment

17. The process of bone growth by addition of bone tissue on one side and resoprtion in the other is known as a. Drift b. Deposition

c. Translocation d. Displacement

18. The term used in orthodontics which means resistance to displacement is

a. Traction b. Drift

c. Auxillary d. Anchorage

19. The growth theory that claims that the bone and cartilage growth is determined by functional matrices is a. Sicher’s bone growth theory b. Scott’s growth theory

c. V-theory of growth d. Moss’ theory

20. What is the equivalent of physiologic orthodontic force? a. Normal venous pressure b. Combination of arterial and venous blood pressure

c. Normal arterial pressure d. Normal capillary blood pressure

21. Skeletal relationship and growth direction can be best assessed by an analysis of landmarks in a a. Panoramix x-ray b. Dental cast

c. Cephalometric radiograph d. Lateral skull x-ray

22. A dental posterior crossbite of the 1st permanent molars without mandibular shift can be corrected by the following a. Expansion of the arch with a Warch appliance b. Crossbite elastic

c. Quad helix d. Occlusal equilibration

23. An active removable appliance should be adjusted every ____ weeks a. 4-6 b. 4-5

c. 2-3 d. 3-4

24. ______ eruption is an important factor in widening and changing the shape of maxillary dental arch a. Bicuspids b. Canines

c. Molar d. Incisors

25. The arch perimeter is maintained only of the following conditions are present a. There is no loss of arch perimeter b. All of these c. There is favourable mixed dentition analysis

d. There is no loss of one or more primary teeth

1. Palatal fusion is typically completed by? A. 12 weeks B. 8 weeks C. 11 weeks D. 6 weeks 2. In early mixed dentition case with insufficient space in anterior segment for erupting permanent lateral incisors, what treatment is indicated? A. No treatment – allow the incisors to erupt in an crowded state and treat the case in the permanent dentition B. Disc the proximal surfaces of the permanent incisors to reduce the space required C. Disc the deciduous cuspids D. Extract the deciduous 3. A mixed dentition analysis determines: A. Space available vs space required B. Intercanine width C. Discrepancies in jaw size D. Size of permanent incisors 4. What is the rationale for selective early removal of deciduous teeth in cases involving deficient arch length? A. To promote permanent tooth alignment by creating space B. To hasten eruption of underlying permanent teeth C. To reduce subsequent orthodontic treatment time D. To begin the several steps leading to selected bicuspids extraction E. All of the above 5. As a child grows, the position of the mandibular foramen in relation to the mandibular occlusal plane will become ________ than the occlusal plane. A. Higher B. Lower 6. What space maintainer is appropriate for a 5-6 year-old child after extraction of tooth #85? A. None B. Lingual holding arch C. Nance appliance D. Distal shoe E. Band and loop 7. An 8 year old patient with all primary molars still present exhibits a cusp to cusp relationship of permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars. The dentist should: A. Continue regular recalls B. Plan serial extractions for more normal adjustment of the occlusion C. Refer the patient to an orthodontist for consultation D. Place a cervical headgear to reposition maxillary molars

8. FH is a reference plane constructed by joining which of the following landmarks? A. Nasion and sella B. Porion and sella

C. Porion and nasion D. Porion and orbitale E. Basion and orbitale 9. A mixed dentition patient with anterior crossbite of al...