Pharmaceutical Chemistry of Organic Medicinals Answer Key- Green Pacop PDF

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B 1. The ratio of disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to kill a given strain of the bacterium Salmonella typhi : a. Phenol number b. Phenol coefficient c. Phenol value d. None of the aboveC 2. The generic name of Nizoral: a. Meconazole b. Clotrimazole c. Ketoconazole d. Potassium sorbate...

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ORGANIC PHARMACEUTICAL PHARMACY

B

1. The ratio of disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to kill a given strain of the bacterium Salmonella typhi: a. Phenol number b. Phenol coefficient c. Phenol value d. None of the above

C

2. The generic name of Nizoral: a. Meconazole b. Clotrimazole

c. Ketoconazole

d. Potassium sorbate

3. Sulfonamides used for burn therapy: a. Mafenide b. Silver sulfadiazine

c. both a and b

d. none of the preceeding

4. The following are preservatives except: a. undecylenic acid b. Methyl paraben

c. benzoic acid

d. potassium sorbate

C A C B A

D A

5. The combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is also known as: a. clotrimazole b. miconazole c. co-trimoxazole

d. cotrimazine

6. A polyene anti-fungal antibiotic: a. Griseofulvin b. Nystatin

c. Salicylic acid

d. Econazole

7. Benzyl penicillin is also known as: a. Penicillin G b. Penicillin V

c. Oxacillin

d. Ampicillin

8. First generation urinary tract anti-infective: a. salicylic acid b. Griseofulvin

c. Norfloxacin

d. Nalidixic acid

9. A fluoroquinolone: a. Norfloxacin

c. Methenamine

b. Pipemedic acid

d. none of the above

D

10. Combination therapy in the treatment of tuberculosis contain the following drugs, except: a. Ethambutol b. Rifampin c. Isoniazid d. Streptomycin

B

11. These drugs are used in treatment of amoebic dysentery, except: a. Tinidazole b. Chloroquine c. Etofamide

d. Metronidazole

12. A fourth generation cephalosphorins: a. Cefaloxin b. Cefepime

c. Cefamandole

d. Cefuroxime

13. This drug is used in the treatment of chicken pox: a. Zidovudine b. Chloroquine

c. Acyclovir

d. Metronidazole

14. The drug of choice for typhoid fever: a. Chloramphenicol b. Lincomycin

c. Penicillin

d. Cephalosporins

B C A D

15. The generic name of Dalacin C which is often used to treat pimples: a. Erythromycin b. Tetracycline c. Lincomycin

d. Clindamycin

B

16. The study of chemical agents which are selectively more toxic to the invading organisms than the host: a. therapeutics b. chemotherapy c. organic chemistry d. biochemistry

C

17. Compounds that kill or prevent the growth of microorganisms when applied to living tissues: a. disinfectant b. fungicides c. antiseptics d. systemic anti-infectives

A

18. A combination of non-ionic and cationic surfactants with iodine: a. Povidone-Ioduine b. Strong I2 solution c. Iodine Tincture d. I2 in KI solution

D

19. The generic name of new Merthiolate is: a. Chorhexidine gluconate b. Thimerosal

c. Mexachlorophene d. Benzalkonium chloride

20. Mechanism of action of quinolones: a. injury to plasma membrane b. inhibition of DNA gyrase

c. protein synthesis inhibition d. production of toxic free radicals

B

B A

21. Prodrugs of active anti-malarial metabolites, the dihydrotriazines: a. quinolines b. biguanides c. beta-lactams

d. quinolones

22. 7 chloro-7-deoxy lincomycin: a. clindamycin b. roxithromycin

d. ilotycin

c. spectinomycin

D

23. The drug is effective against both exoerythrocytic and erythrocytic forms of malaria: a. chloroquine b. quinine c. amodiaquine d. cycloguanil

B

24. Newest and most potent quinoline derivative for malaria: a. amodiaquine b. mefloquine c. atabrine

d. daraprim

25. An aromatic diamide derivative used for sleeping sickness: a. suramin b. pentamidine c. efflornithine

d. stibophen

B

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ORGANIC PHARMACEUTICAL PHARMACY

A

26. Methylated erythromycin: a. clarithromycin b. azithromycin

c. lincomycin

d. ilotycin

B

27. A semi-synthetic aminoglycoside whose structural prototype is kanamycin: a. Kantrex b. Amikin c. Garamycin d. Nebcin

A

28. Structural congener of Symmetrel which is used for viral influenza: a. ribavirin b. rimantadine c. gancyclovir

d. foscarnet

29. More potent optical isomer of ofloxacin: a. levo b. dextro

d. trans isomer

A

c. cis isomer

B

30. These group of drugs share the same mechanism of action as that of sulfanilamide but are less effective: a. trimethoprim b. sulfones c. quinolones d. none of the above

B

31. Mechanism of action of thiabendazole: a. paralysis due to GABA receptor occupation b. inhibition of cell division

c. phagocytic attack on worms d. decreased glucose uptake

32. This anti-burn therapy causes systemic acidosis: a. silvadene b. sulfamylon

c. whitfield

33. Drug of choice for filarial infections: a. ivermectin b. praziquantel

c. diethylcarbamazine d. Stibophen

34. Active form of the sulfonamide: a. non-ionized b. ionized

c. amphoteric

d. oxo ring

35. Use of crotamiton: a. pediculicide

c.anthelmintic

d. antibacterial

B

C

B B C

b. scabicide

36. Mechanism of action of mebendazole: a. paralysis due to excessive loss of calcium b. unknown mechanism of action

d. vandol

c. decreased glucose uptake d. phagocytic attack on worms

D

37. A sympathomimetic agent that bind to alpha receptors found centrally that cause suppression of appetite: a. Xenical b. Gas-X c. Apokinon d. Adifax

B

38. An example of a glycine conjugation pathway: a. phenol to phenolsulfate b. benzoic acid to hippuric acid

c. noradrenaline to epinephrine d. antabuse to dithiocarbamic acid

B

39. The following are characteristics of active transport, except: a. follow saturation kinetics c. carrier mediated b. expenditure of energy d. higher to lower concentration gradient

B

40. These anti-diarrheals tend to decrease pore sizes of GIT epithelial to prevent formation of watery stools: a. adsorbents b. astringents c. anti-motility d. oresols

C

41. This anti-histamine possesses the same indications as that of diphenhydramine: a. meclizine b. hyoscine c. dimenhydrinate d. celestamine

A

42. The metabolism of warfarin is induced by the following except: a. tolbutamide b. haloperidol c. nitroglycerine

d. DDT

43. Fertility vitamins: a. retinoic acid

d. biotin

C

b. riboflavin

c. alpha tocopherol

C

44. Calcitriol, a hormone responsible for enhanced absorption of calcium from the intestines, is synthesized from: a. calcitonin b. vitamin D2 c. vitamin D3 d. caltrate

A

45. A metabolite of chloral hydrate: a. trichloroacetic acid b. acetaldehyde

c. carbapenem ring

d. phenacetone

46. A sample drug excreted via the saliva: a. lidocaine b. sulfonamide

c. sulfonamide

d. thiamine

A B

47. A vitamin A derivative used in the management of psoriasis: a. Retin-A b. Tegison c. Accutane

B

48. Structurally specific drugs are those whose activity depends on: a. physical characteristics c. both a and c b. ability to bind on a specific receptor d. none of the above

A

49. The most potent anti-bacterial alcohol: a. primary b. secondary

c. tertiary

d. Oilatum

d. quaternary

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ORGANIC PHARMACEUTICAL PHARMACY

A B

50. Product of acid hydrolysis of penicillins: a. penicillenic acid b. penicilloic acid

c. penicilloate Cl

51. Cidex: a. gammabenzenehexachloride b. glutarol

c. hexachlorophene d. carbamoyl phosphate

d. pinecillic acid

B

52. Presence of electron withdrawing groups attached to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins render: a. activity against Pseudomonas c. activity against Gram (-) bacteria b. acid stability d. penicillinase resistance

D

53. Attachment of bulky groups to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins render: a. activity against Pseudomonas c. activity against Gram (-) bacteria b. acid stability d. penicillinase resistance

B

54. A glycopeptide antibiotic: a. beta-lactam b. vancomycin

c. polymyxin

d. probenecid

C

55. A a. b. c. d.

B

56. 1 gram mass of tumor is equivalent to: a. 100,000 cancer cells b. 1 billion cancer cells

c. 1 million cancer cells d. none of the above

57. The following are mucolytics, except: a. bromhexine b. acetylcysteine

c. caramiphen

C

tumor is benign if: metastasis is evident cell originating from the tumor may invade other tissues and cause damage tumor mass may be removed by surgery and regression of remaining cells occur cause damage to surrounding structures

d. none of the above

C

58. The side effects of steroids used for asthma are minimized when the drug is given: a. orally b. intravenously c. via inhalation d. rectally

B

59. A progesterone derivative which is used for the treatment of endometrial cancer: a. tamoxifen b. depo-provera c. flutamide d. goserelin

B

60. Drug of choice for absence seizures: a. carbamazepine b. ethosuximide

C

c. phenytoin

61. An anti-oxidant added in food products which are potent carcinogens: a. aspartame b. PCP c. BHT

d. primidone d. EDTA

A

62. Pentavalent antimony in the presence hydrochloric acid gives a violet precipitate with this pink dye: a. rhodomine B c. p-nitrobenzene azo-resorcinol b. aluminum reagent d. dimethylglyoxime

C

63. Expectorant obtained from the phenol volatile oil of Fagus grandiflora: a. potassium iodide b. tyloxapol c. guaiafenesin

d. emetine

64. Mescaline is a _________ derivative: a. indolethylamine b. phenylethylamine

c. steroidal

d. xanthine

65. Anesthetic of choice for labor: a. halothane b. enflurance

c. nitrous oxide

d. methoxyflurane

B D B C

D B B A

A

66. The drug of choice for the acute attack of migraine: a. Codeine b. Avamigran c. Litec

d. Inderal

67. Anesthetic of choice for patients with asthma: a. ketamine b. thiopental

c. enflurane

d. none of the above

68. Propionic acid derivative: a. paracetamol b. dipyrone

c. piroxicam

d. naproxen

69. An example of iodophor: a. iodine tincture b. povidone-iodine

c. Lugol’s solution

d. all of the above

70. Phenylmethanol: a. chloretone

c. phenylalcohol

d. carvacrol

b. benzyl alcohol

71. A characteristic of cancer cells: a. lack of normal growth controls b. synthesis of DNA occurs in the M phase

c. G0 phase is the resting phase for all cell types d. None of the above

72. Carcinogenic substances obtained from paper products: a. polychlorinated biphenyls c. butylatedhydroxyanisole b. acesulfame d. none of the above

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ORGANIC PHARMACEUTICAL PHARMACY

C

C A D C B C A A C

73. Prostaglandins are also known as: a. saturated fats b. compound lipids

c. eicosanoids

74. Which of the following functional groups is the most basic? a. imide b. amide c. amine

d. all of the above

d. aniline

75. Derivatives of benzylsulfonylureas are: a. oral hypoglycemics b. diuretics

c. anti-inflammatory d. spasmolytic

76. A necessary precursor of visual pigment is: a. tocopherol b. retinal

c. ergosterol

d. retinal

77. Paracetamol is a/an: a. salicylate

c. aniline derivative

d. azocine derivative

b. pyrazolone

78. All of the following are progestins except: a. norethindrone b. testosterone

c. ethynodiol diacetate

79. Aspirin is to salicylic acid as morphine is to: a. codeine b. methadone

c. heroin

d. pentazocine

80. The functional group in pyridoxine is: a. alcohol b. amine

c. carboxylic acid

d. ketone

81. Ascorbic acid and tetracycline are: a. enols b. esters

c. ethers

d. amines

82. MAO is classified as a/an: a. protein inhibitor b. complexing agent

c. enzyme

d. hormone

d. progesterone

C

83. When used in pharmaceutic preparations, the purpose of hydroquinone, lecithin and alpha tocopherol is: a. humectant c. oil soluble antioxidant b. demelanizing agent d. emulsifying agent

D

84. Naturally occurring alkaloids, derivatives of tropane are: a. nasal decongestants b. analgesic c. vasoconstrictor

A

C B B C D

d. bronchodilator

85. Local anesthetics that is not a derivative of benzoic acid is: a. lidocaine b. procaine c. dibucaine

d. bupivacaine

86. All of the following are macrolide antibiotics, except: a. erythromycin b. oleandomycin c. vancomycin

d. spiramycin

87. Ativan has this generic name: a. triazolam b. lorazepam

c. flurazepam

d. tranexamic acid

88. Plasil is: a. acyclovir

c. diclofenac sodium d. tranexamic acid

b. metoclopramide

89. The principal hydrolytic degradation product of aspirin is: a. methyl salicylate b. acetyl chloride c. salicylic acid

d. salicylamide

90. Barbiturates containing a sulfur atom are usually: a. short acting b. intermediate acting

d. ultra short acting

c. long acting

D

91. Although the prostaglandins are hormone-like, they may closely resemble which of the following chemically? a. enzymes b. porphyrins c. proteins d. lipids

A

92. The onset and duration of barbiturate action is mainly a function of its: a. lipid solubility c. plasma binding b. renal excretion d. method of administration

B

93. The prototype narcotic antagonist is: a. nalorphine b. naloxone

c. levallorphan

94. Lysergic acid diethylamide is: a. derived from mushroom b. a parasympathetic drug

c. histamine analog d. ergot derivative

95. Orthohydroxybenzoic acid is: a. acetic acid b. salicylic acid

c. oxalic acid

d. citric acid

96. Diamox has a generic name of: a. allopurinol b. acetazolamide

c. dimethylxanthine

d. theophylline

D

B B

d. meperidine

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ORGANIC PHARMACEUTICAL PHARMACY

C B B D B C

97. Diphenoxylate is a structural analog of: a. dilantin b. codeine

c. meperidine

d. naloxone

98. Cevitamic acid is: a. folic acid

c. nicotinic acid

d. glacial acetic acid

b. ascorbic acid

99. Chloroquine is the generic name of: a. atabrine b. artane

c. aralen

d. akineton

100. Kantrex belongs to this type of antibiotics: a. penicillins b. cephalosphorins

c. macrolides

d.. aminoglycosides

101. Epinephrine is also known as: a. tocopherol b. adrenalin

c. emetine

d. levarterenol

102. 1,3-dimethylxanthine is: a. caffeine b. theobromine

c. theophylline

d. aminophylline

C

103. Of the following penicillin congeners, the one with the broadest spectrum of action is: a. pen V b. methicillin c. carbenicillin d. oxacillin

C

104. Zantac is: a. cimetidine

b. famotidine

c. ranitidine

d. nizatidine

105. Cytotec is: a. sucralfate

b. misoprostol

c. omeprazole

d. pirenzepine

106. Ma huang is a/an: a. imidazole alkaloid

b. alkaloidal amine

c. purine

d. steroidal alkaloid

107. Procaine is a/an: a. amine

b. ester

c. alcohol

d. ketone

B B B D C A

C

108. The functional group found in codeine and scopolamine is a/an: a. amine b. alcohol c. ester

d. ether

109. Aureomycin is: a. kanamycin

b. erythromycin

c. chlortetracycline

d. oxytetracycline

110. Bonamine is: a. meclizine

b. dramamine

c. scopolamine

d. aspirin

111. Polyene antibiotics include: I. nystatin II . amphotericin B a. I only b. III only

III. Griseofulvin c. I and II

d. II and III

A

112. Among the three xanthines, it is drug of choice for obtaining a stimulating effect of the CNS. a. caffeine b. theophylline c. theobromine d. all of the above

D

113. A polysaccharide that is used as plasma expander is: a. starch b. insulin c. dextrose

d. dextran

B

114. The combination type oral contraceptive pill contains: a. an androgen and a progestin c. an androgen and an estrogen b. an estrogen and progestin d. FSH and LH

B

115. Simethicone is chemically classified as a/an: a. wax b. silicone

c. sulfur

d. ketone

C

116. An acidifying agent employed in effervescent salts and refrigerant drinks: a. acetic acid b. lactic acid c. tartaric acid d. citric acid

D

117. This is an analgesic agent that is used to lessen severity of labor pains in obstetrics: a. colchicines b. codeine c. apomorphine d. Demerol

B

118. Benzaldehyde is synthetic: a. cinnamon oil b. bitter almond oil

B C A B

c. corn oil

d. rose oil

119. The ring common among penicillins and cephalosphorins: a. benzene ring b. B-lactam ring c. thiazole ring

d. phenothiazone

120. Retin-A is: a. alltoin

d. benzoyl peroxide

b. adapalene

c. tretinoin

121. Barbiturates with an intermediate duration of action: a. amorbital b. Phenobarbital c. pentobarbital

d. secobarbital

122. Vitamin C is extremely important in wound healing. Its principal effect is on the:

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ORGANIC PHARMACEUTICAL PHARMACY

a. maturation of osteoblast b. collagen formation

c. reduction of inflammation d. epithelial prolifer...