SCIE1106 past exam questions with answers PDF

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All previous questions used in previous exams since mid 2010's...

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HI, how did everyone go in their exam? I was going to remove sharing settings but it looks like people are still using the document would you like me to leave it up for a bit longer?

Good luck today everyone!! these are some google docs from last year :) Quiz 1 tps://docs.google.com/document/d/1YswwAWomURAIkGm2Wc7gTzwNP_WU9RHHeAo8P7Cb_E/edit?pli=1 quiz 2 https://docs.google.com/document/d/1u4MTyZzy3yIWcwiTi1R7be_EQSdTyn9LNk5F K46J5kg/edit?pli=1 quiz 3 ttps://docs.google.com/document/d/1V5o3mDffpV9X6UrtPew7FsQy0UdjZbr VJ5RNTzKt5ho/edit?pli=1h quiz 4 https://docs.google.com/document/d/1V5o3mDffpV9X6UrtPew7FsQy0UdjZbrVJ5RN TzKt5ho/edit?pli=1 quiz 5 https://docs.google.com/a/student.uwa.edu.au/document/d/1fCV1pNZyDROO9nsdS oPV6BcdfPLZOmqNdZd10MhfKxs/edit?pli=1

QUIZ 1 covering lectures 2-5 1. An ionic bond between two atoms is formed as a result of the Select one: a. loss of electrons from both atoms. b. loss or gain of electrons by atoms. c. loss of a proton from one atom. d. sharing of electrons. e. loss of a neutron from one atom. 2. Regarding condensation reactions, which of the following is FALSE? Select one: a. They produce water molecules b. They consume water molecules. c. They produce many biological polymers from monomers. d. They are the opposite of hydrolysis reactions. e. They are usually catalysed in cells by enzymes. 3. Which of the following statements regarding fatty acids is TRUE? Select one: a. Unsaturated fatty acids contain no double bonds in the hydrocarbon tail.

b. Unsaturated fatty acids do not have a hydrophilic head group. c. Saturated fatty acids pack closely together to form ordered arrays. d. Saturated fatty acids are liquid at room temperature. e. Saturated fatty acids contain double bonds in the hydrocarbon tails. 4. The subunits of nucleotides are a Select one: a. phosphate group, a disaccharide, and a fatty acid. b. five-carbon sugar and an amino acid. c. five-carbon sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a phosphate group. d. nitrogenous base, an amino acid, and a monosaccharide e. amino acid, glycerol, and a fatty acid. 5. Which of the following statements is FALSE? Select one: a. Prokaryotic cells do not have membranes. b. Prokaryotic cells are generally smaller and less elaborate than eukaryotic cells. c. Eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles. d. A cell can divide, grow, convert energy and respond to stimuli. e. All cells are composed of similar sorts of molecules. 6. Which of the following statements concerning prokaryotes is TRUE? Select one: a. They have no Golgi apparatus. b. They are all able to live on inorganic energy sources. c. They have no nucleus and hence no DNA. d. They include bacteria, yeast, and protozoans. e. They are separated into eubacteria and archea bacteria based on phenotype. 7. In chloroplasts, the carbon fixation cycle requires energy in the form of __________________ and reducing power in the form of __________________. Select one: a. NADPH; ATP b. NADH; ATP c. ATP; NADH d. NADH; NADPH e. ATP; NADPH 8. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is involved in the synthesis of ____________, while rough endoplasmic reticulum is involved in _____________ synthesis. Select one: a. protein; lipid b. lipid; protein c. lipid; carbohydrate d. carbohydrate; protein e. carbohydrate; lipid

9. Which of the following statements about hydrogen bonds is TRUE? Select one: a. They are weak bonds only formed in the presence of water. b. They are weak covalent bonds that are easily disrupted by heat. c. They are weak bonds formed between hydrocarbons in water. d. They are weak bonds formed between nonpolar groups. e. They are weak bonds involved in maintaining the conformation of macromolecules. 10. Starch and glycogen are ______________ composed of ______________ subunits. Select one: a. disaccharides; glucose and fructose b. monosaccharides; fructan c. polysaccharides; cellulose d. polysaccharides; glucose e. disaccharides; sucrose 11. Phospholipids can form bilayer membranes because they are Select one: a. hydrophobic. b. amphipathic. c. lipids. d. hydrophilic. e. amphoteric. 12. Regarding nucleotides, which of the following is FALSE? Select one: a. They are the building blocks of DNA and RNA. b. They link together through DNA base pairing to form the backbone of nucleic acids. c. They are composed of a five carbon sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a phosphate group. d. They can act as signalling molecules. e. They can be carriers of chemical energy. 13. Which of the following statements is FALSE? Select one: a. All cells are composed of similar sorts of molecules. b. Eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles. c. Prokaryotic cells are generally smaller and less elaborate than eukaryotic cells. d. Prokaryotic cells do not have membranes. e. A cell can divide, grow, convert energy and respond to stimuli. 14. The three major organelles in animals/plants that have a double layered membranes are

Select one: a. the endosomes, the vesicles and the nucleus. b. the mitochondria, the vesicles and the chloroplasts. c. the nucleus, the chloroplasts and the mitochondria. d. the Golgi apparatus, the endosomes and the nucleus. e. none of the above 15. Carbon is an abundant element in biological molecules because it a. can form up to five bonds by sharing its electrons b. forms only single bonds. c. forms only double bonds. d. it does not usually bond to other carbons, allowing a more diverse combination of elements. e. forms four covalent bonds with other atoms by electron pair sharing 17. A phospholipid differs from a triacylglycerol molecule in that a phospholipid a. has two hydrocarbon tails instead of three. b. has three hydrocarbon tails instead of two c. serves as an energy reserve. d. is amphipathic. e. is insoluble in water. 19. Which of the following statements about the basic molecular biology of cells is FALSE? a. The genetic instructions in all cells are stored in DNA. b. All cells respond to their environment. c. All cells are composed of similar molecules. d. All cells have the same basic genetic mechanisms. e. All cells contain either 60S or 80S ribosomes 20. Which of the following is NOT located in the mitochondrial matrix? a. Ribosomes b. Transfer RNA (tRNA) c. The mitochondrial genome d. Citric acid cycle enzymes e. Electron transport chain complexes I, III, IV 21. The light harvesting reactions of photosynthesis take place in the ___________ of a plant cell while the production of carbohydrates occurs in the _____________. a. stroma; thylakoidsb. b. cytosol; stroma c. thylakoids; cytosol d. cytosol; thylakoids e. thylakoids; stroma

22. Which of the following statements is incorrect? a. Chloroplasts are photosynthetic organelles. b. Mitochondria are the site of cellular respiration in cells. c. Both mitochondria and chloroplasts have double bilayer membranes. d. Mitochondria evolved from engulfed prokaryotes. e. Chloroplasts contain no DNA 23. Which of the following statements regarding the DNA double helix is FALSE? a. The two strands are held together by interchain covalent bonds b. A 1:1 ratio between pyrimidines and purines exists c. The two nucleic acid strands are anti-parallel to each other d. The two strands have complementary base pairing e. A base pairs with T 24. Which statement is FALSE. Prokaryotes do NOT have: a. a proper nucleus b. intracellular chloroplasts c. single-stranded DNA d. intracellular mitochondria e. phospholipid bilayers 25. Which of the following statements regarding polysaccharides is FALSE? a. Polysaccharides are involved in energy storage and cell adhesion. b. Polysaccharides have a structural role only in the Plant Kingdom. c. Polysaccharides form from monosaccharides through condensation reactions. d. The two types of links that can form between the sugar subunits making up polysaccharides are α and β links. e. Polysaccharides may be branched or linear chains of sugar subunits. 26. Which of the following is/are NOT found in BOTH prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? a. Genetic material b. Cytoplasm c. Organelles d. Ribosomes e. Plasma membrane 27.Atoms form covalent bonds with each other by a. sharing neutrons b. attraction of positive and negative charges c. sharing electrons d. transferring electrons from one atom to another e. sharing protons

28. A triglyceride is a molecule a. of three glycerol molecules joined to form a complex. b. formed from three glyceride molecules joined by hydrogen bonding. c. used by cells in the production of the glycocalyx. d. that forms the lipid monolayers in cells. e. with a glycerol backbone and three fatty acid chains attached. 31.Which of the following statements about the plasma membrane is FALSE? a. It mediates the transport of substances into and out of the cell. b. It has a bilayer structure. c. It has the capacity to expand during cell growth. d. It is the membrane surrounding the nucleus. e. It receives and transmits information from the cell’s surrounding environment. 32.In chloroplasts, the carbon fixation cycle requires energy in the form of __________________ and reducing power in the form of __________________. a. NADH; NADPH b. ATP; NADH c. NADPH; ATP d. ATP; NADPH e. NADH; ATP 33.Which of the following statements is incorrect? a. Chloroplasts contain no DNA. b. Mitochondria evolved from engulfed prokaryotes. c. Both mitochondria and chloroplasts have double bilayer membranes. d. Mitochondria are the site of cellular respiration in cells. e. Chloroplasts are photosynthetic organelles. 34. The central dogma of Molecular Biology is a. DNA is transcribed into RNA which is translated into protein. b. protein is reverse translated into RNA which is reverse transcribed into DNA. c. DNA is transcribed into RNA which is transacetylated into proteins. d. DNA is translated into RNA which is transcribed into proteins. e. RNA is reverse transcribed into DNA which is transcribed into proteins. 35. Which of the following statements regarding polysaccharides is FALSE? a. Polysaccharides are formed from monosaccharides through hydrolysis reactions. b. Polysaccharides may be linear or branched chains of sugar subunits. c. Polysaccharides have a structural role in plants and animals. d. Monomeric sugar subunits are linked by α and β bonds to form polysaccharides. e. Polysaccharides have are involved in energy storage in plant and animal cells. 36. Which of the following statements is FALSE about ATP? a. It can be hydrolysed to release energy to power hundreds of reactions in cells. b. It is used by both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells as a source of energy.

c. It can be incorporated into DNA. d. It comprises a sugar, phosphate groups, and a nitrogenous base. e. It contains high energy phosphoanhydride bonds. 37. Which of the following statements concerning prokaryotes is FALSE? a. Their DNA is a circular molecule. b. They are surrounded by a cell wall. c. Their DNA is contained within a nucleus. d. They lack membrane-bound organelles. e. They are divided into the archeabacteria and eubacteria based on their molecular biology. 38. The energy released by the flow of electrons along the electron transport chains of both chloroplasts and mitochondria is used DIRECTLY to a. oxidise Complex I. b. pump protons. c. form ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate. d. reduce Complex I. e. form ADP and inorganic phosphate from ATP.

39. Which of the following are removed from mRNAs during processing? a. small nuclear riboproteins b. exons c. RNA cap structure d. noncoding sequences e. poly(A) tail

Quiz 1 Answers 1b 2b 3c 4c 5a 6a 7e 8b 9e 10d 11b 12b 13d 14c 15e 17a 19e 20e 21e 22e 23a 24e 25b 26c 27c 28e 29d 30d 31d 32d 33a 34a 35a 36c 37c 38b 39d Quiz 2 SCIE1106 covering lectures 6-12

1. ________________ promotes the formation of covalent bonds between _______________ thymine residues in a DNA strand, creating a thymine dimer. Select one: a. Visible light; adjacent b. Visible light; nearby c. Infrared light; adjacent d. UV light; nearby e. UV light; adjacent 2. Which of the following statements regarding homologous recombination is NOT TRUE? a. An exonuclease removes nucleotides on one strand to create single stranded DNA. b. Holliday junctions are formed between the two double stranded DNAs c. This mechanism can be used to repair double stranded breaks in the DNA backbone. d. Two double stranded DNA molecules are required for this process. e. No regions of extensive homology are required. 3. The DNA polymerases of E. coli have a. different Okazaki fragments within them b. the same rate of addition of dNTPs c. the same role in repair synthesis of DNA. d. different affinities for dNTPs e. the same number of molecules per cell. 4. DNA replication is semi-conservative. This implies that a. DNA sequence is only partially conserved during replication. b. replication bubbles all move in the same direction. c. newly synthesised double-stranded DNA contains only one new strand. d. replication forks all move in the same direction. e. the DNA polymerase has a proof reading function. 5. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the two strands of a DNA double helix? a. they form a right-handed helix

b. they are linked to each other by phosphodiester bonds c. they are non-complementary d. they are oriented in the same direction, 5’ to 3’ e. they are both coding 6. Antiparallel is a term applied to the double-stranded DNA structure. This refers to the fact that Select one: a. one strand is complementary to the other. b. strands are based paired via hydrogen bonds. c. one strand is coding whilst the other is not. d. strands are in opposite orientations. e. strands form a right-handed helix.

7. Which nitrogenous base is unique to RNA? Select one: a. xanthine b. thymine c. uracil d. adenine e. guanine 8. Which of the following is NOT CORRECT for RNA? Select one: a. RNA contains the nitrogenous base called uracil. b. RNA is synthesised as the reverse complement of the DNA coding strand. c. A primer is not required to initiate RNA synthesis. d. In bacteria mRNA has a short life of a few minutes or less. e. RNA is generally found as a single stranded molecule. 9. Eukaryotic mRNAs are modified at the 5’ end with Select one: a. a poly-A tail b. an adenosine cap c. a triphosphate group d. an intron e. a 7-methylguanosine cap

10. Prokaryotic ribosomes differ from eukaryotic ribosomes because a. prokaryotic ribosomes contain fewer subunits b. eukaryotic ribosomes contain no protein c. prokaryotic ribosomes contain 5S rRNA d. eukaryotic ribosomes contain larger subunits e. prokaryotic ribosomes contain no RNA

11. During the initiation stage of translation in bacteria Select one: a. fMet-tRNAi binds at the A site. b. release factors bind at the A site. c. fMet-tRNAi binds to the initiation codon. d. a peptide bond is formed. e. the two ribosome subunits separate. 12. During the elongation stage of translation Select one: a. a peptide bond is formed between two amino acids. b. fMet-tRNA binds to the initiation codon. c. the two ribosomal subunits separate. d. a polysome forms. e. release factors bind at the A site. 13. Which of the following events is not part of the termination stage of translation? Select one: a. Releasing factors bind at the A site. b. The ribosome encounters a stop codon. c. The polypeptide chain is released. d. The ribosomal subunits dissociate. e. The ribosome moves along the mRNA to the next codon. 14. In eukaryotes, but not prokaryotes, ribosomes find the start site of translation by Select one: a. binding an initiator tRNA. b. recognising an AUG codon as the start of translation. c. binding directly to a ribosome binding site preceding the initiation codon. d. binding a peptidyl tRNA. e. scanning along the mRNA from the 5’ end. 15. If uncorrected, deamination of cytosine in DNA is most likely to lead to a. conversion of the DNA into RNA. b. creation of a xanthine nitrogenous base. c. generation of a thymine dimer. d. deletion of the altered CG base pair from the DNA. e. substitution of an GC base pair with an AT base pair 16. The first step in basic DNA mismatch repair is a. nucleases that excise unpaired DNA. b. DNA polymerase synthesises a copy of the DNA. c. enzymes detect incorrectly paired bases d. RNA polymerase transcribes the DNA. e. DNA ligase repairs the backbone.

17. DNA replication is considered semi-conservative because a. after many rounds of DNA replication, the original DNA double helix is still intact. b. each daughter DNA molecule consists of one strand from the parent DNA molecule and one new strand c. new DNA strands must be copied from a DNA template. d. each daughter DNA molecule consists of two new strands copied from the parenolecule.t DNA m e. an RNA primer must be used to initiate synthesis of the DNA strand. 18. DNA replication has an error rate of 1 in a billion bases. This is because a. DNA polymerase works on both strands of double-stranded DNA. b. DNA polymerase does not recognise RNA. c. DNA polymerase cannot work without a template. d. DNA polymerase has a proof-reading function e. DNA polymerase is a multi-subunit protein. 19. The most common form of DNA in cells is: a. Z DNA b. G DNA c. B DNA d. Q DNA e. A DNA 20. The main technique used by Watson and Crick to determine the structure of double-stranded DNA was a. gel electrophoresis. b. nuclear magnetic resonance. c. electron spin resonance. d. restriction enzyme digestion. e. X-ray diffraction 21. All are factors or subunits contained within the E. coli RNA polymerase holoenzyme in prokaryotic organisms except a. α (alpha). b. σ (sigma) c. ρ (rho) d. β' (beta prime) e. β (beta) 22. Which statement is CORRECT regarding transcription? a. The sigma factor binds to the promoter region of genes b. RNA polymerase core enzyme can bind DNA. c. RNA polymerase synthesises RNA in the 3’ to 5’ direction. d. RNA polymerase synthesises a reverse complement of the DNA template strand. e. RNA polymerase has a proof reading activity.

24. Prokaryotic ribosomes differ from eukaryotic ribosomes because a. prokaryotic ribosomes contain no RNA b. prokaryotic ribosomes contain fewer subunits c. eukaryotic ribosomes contain no protein d. prokaryotic ribosomes contain 5S rRNA e. eukaryotic ribosomes contain larger subunits 25. Which of the following statements regarding translation is TRUE? a. During termination of translation, the A site remains vacant, resulting in release of the mRNA. b. The first step in translation involves the large subunit binding to the 5’ end of the mRNA c. The initiator tRNA binds to the A site of the ribosome to initiate translation. d. The initiating tRNA in prokaryotes carries formyl methionine. e. The small ribosomal subunit contains the peptidyltransferase activity. 26. The Shine Dalgarno sequence found in prokaryotic systems resides on the _______ end of ____________ and is the ____________ site. a. 5’; mRNA, ribosome binding: b. 3’; aminoacyl-tRNA; formyl methionine binding c. 3’; rRNA; initiation factor binding d. 3’; peptidyl-tRNA; formyl transferase e. 5’; DNA; polymerase binding 27. After transferring its peptide, a tRNA exits the bacterial ribosome complex via the ____________. a. A site b. 30 S subunit c. 50S subunit d. E site e. P site 28. In eukaryotes, but not prokaryotes, ribosomes find the start site of translation by a. binding directly to a ribosome binding site preceding the initiation codon. b. recognising an AUG codon as the start of translation c. binding a peptidyl tRNA. d. binding an initiator tRNA. e. scanning along the mRNA from the 5’ end. 29. Mutations in DNA may result from all of the following EXCEPT a. transposable elements. b. chemical mutagens. c. infectious agents. d. spontaneous mutations due to errors in replication. e. errors in transcription.

30. Regarding the role of the helicase enzyme in DNA replication, a. it adds nucleotides to the 3’ end of the new strand. b. it wraps around DNA to ensure the stability of the double helix structure. c. it is often associated with a ribosomal subunit. d. it unwinds the DNA double helix during replication. e. it complexes with histones to produce their standard 9+2 arrangement. 31. Thymine is Select one: a. found in both DNA and RNA. b. an alternative word for the vitamin thiamine. c. found i...