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JAA ATPL QUESTIONS

COMM UNICATIONS

Book 14: COMMUNICATIONS IFR Definitions 17 Questions 1. The expected approach time (EAT) means the time at which: a. ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will arrive at the holding point to complete its approach for landing b. The pilot expects to be over a specified point c. Lunch is served d. ATC expects the aircraft to land 2. Am altitude of 13,500 feet would be spoken as: a. ONE THREE THOUSEAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET b. ANGELS THIRTEEN POINT FIVE c. THIRTEEN THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET d. ONE THREE THOUSAND FIVE ZERO ZERO FEET 3. An aircraft is on an IFR approach to an aerodrome in VMC. This approach cab be defined as: a. A VFR approach b. An IFR approach c. An IFR approach in IMC d. A VFR approach with visual reference to the ground 4. A broadcast is a transmission of: a. Navigational information for which no reply is expected b. Information that is not addressed to specific aircraft c. Information addressed to more than one aircraft d. Any information from the ground 5. The abbreviation RVR stands for: a. Runway Vertical Range b. Restricted Visual Rules 1/45

JAA ATPL QUESTIONS

COMM UNICATIONS

c. Radio Vertical Range d. Runway Visual Range 6. The response to general call from ATC is for the aircraft to: a. Give no response b. Respond in alphabetical order c. Request a repeat of the message d. Respond in numerical order 7. A waypoint is: a. A geographical location relating to area navigation (RNAV) b. A designated reporting point c. A visual sign pointing the way d. A geographical point at which a change of level takes place 8. Air-ground communication is a: a. Two-way communication between an aircraft and a station on the surface b. Pigeon post c. One-way communication from an aircraft to a ground station d. A broadcast from an aircraft 9. What does RNAV stand for? a. Royal Navy Attach Vessel b. Radial Navigation And Vectoring c. Area Navigation d. Radio Navigation 10. The term ‘BROADCAST’ means that the information: a. Is from the BBC b. Is sent in circumstances where communication cannot be established but where it is believed that the called station is able to receive the transmission c. Is not addressed to a specific station d. Requires a readback 2/45

JAA ATPL QUESTIONS

COMM UNICATIONS

11. The abbreviation AIS stands for: a. Aeronautical Information Service b. Attitude Inversion Selector c. Airborne Identification System d. Aerodrome Instrument Service 12. The meaning of QNH is the: a. Altimeter sub-scale setting that gives the elevation when on the ground b. Altimeter sub-scale setting that gives the height above ground c. Quite nifty handling d. Magnetic bearing to a station 13. How does ATC report RVR? a. In nautical miles along with runway b. In feet and inches c. In kilometers along the final approach d. In metres at touchdown, mid-point and stop-end of runway 14. PAPI stands for: a. Propeller and power indicator b. Pay a penny immediately c. Pitch attitude prime instrument d. Precision approach path indicators 15. The abbreviation SSR stands for: a. Secondary surveillance radar b. Sector safely range c. Single system receiver d. Some strange radio 16. The priority of message “REQUEST QDM” is: a. Equal to “ REQUEST DESCENT” b. Greater than for “TURN LEFT” 3/45

JAA ATPL QUESTIONS

COMM UNICATIONS

c. Less than for “QNH IS” d. Same as for “I’M LOST” 17. The abbreviation IMX means: a. In my cockpit b. Instrument met conditions c. Indicated magnetic course d. Immediate mode communications

IFR General Operating Procedures 43 Questions 1. If the rate of speech from the ground station is high, then you should say: a. WORDS TWICE b. EASY BOY c. SPEAK SLOWER d. SAY AGAIN SLOWLY 2. The meaning of “CORRECT” is: a. You got the last question right b. That is correct c. There is a change to your last clearance d. That an error has been made in the transmission and the correct version is.. 3. The phrase “ BREAK BREAK” used to indicate: a. Separation between portions of a message b. The end of a message c. Separation between messages to different aircraft in a very busy environment d. Split your formation flying 4. A waypoint is defined as: a. A compulsory reporting point 4/45

JAA ATPL QUESTIONS

COMM UNICATIONS

b. A visual reporting point c. An optional reporting point d. A geographical location used in relation to RNAV systems 5. If you make a mistake in transmission you should use the phrase: a. SORRY b. I SAY AGAIN c. CORRECT d. CORRECTION 6. You would use the phrase “ WORDS TWICE” when you a. Want each word repeated twice b. Make a blind transmission c. Have a stutter d. Want the whole message to be repeated 7. What is the last thing you say in the readback of a flight clearance? a. The callsign of the other station b. Your name c. The designator of the standard instrument departure d. Your callsign 8. ‘APPROVED’ means: a. I have received all your last transmission b. Permission for proposed action granted c. Authorized to proceed under the conditions specified d. Do as you please 9. Your action on receipt of the message “STANDBY ON 118.9 FOR TOWER” is to: a. Change to freq 118.9 and contact TOWER b. Taxi to the tower and wait c. Change the freq 118.9 and wait for TOWER to initiate communications

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JAA ATPL QUESTIONS

COMM UNICATIONS

d. Wait for TOWER to contact you on present frequency to let you know when they are ready 10. The call-sign of the station that you would be communicating with when receiving a radar service on departure would be: a. DEPARTURE b. CONTROL c. DIRECTOR d. RADAR 11. The term “CANCEL” means: a. Annul the previously transmitted clearance b. Consider the message as not sent c. Your flight has been cancelled by your operator d. There is a correction to your last clearance 12. The meaning of “WILCO” is: a. Standing by b. That is correct c. I understand your message and will comply with it d. Yes sir 13. The term “DISREGARD” means: a. Pay no attention to what I say b. Consider the last message as not sent c. Cancel the last clearance d. You have not been cleared 14. The readback from an aircraft that is cleared to change level from FL100 to FL180 is: a. LEAVING FL 100 DESCENDING TO FL80 b. WILCO c. DOWN TO 8K d. DESCENDING TO FL80 6/45

JAA ATPL QUESTIONS

COMM UNICATIONS

15. READABILITY 1means: a. Unreadable b. Readable now and then c. Incomprehensible d. Readable 16. The term “CORRECTION” is used when: a. The readback of a message is incorrect b. The message to be deleted c. The readback of a message is correct d. An error has been made in the transmission and the correct version is 17. The definition of the instruction “MONITOR” is: a. Your are being watched b. Establish communications on frequency.. c. Watch out for visual signals on frequency.. d. Listen out on frequency.. 18. The instruction from ATC to an aircraft to abandon its take off includes the phrase: a. CANCEL TAKE-OFF b. STOP IMMEDIATELY c. YOU WON’T LIKE THIS d. ABORT ABORT 19. The initial call from an aircraft, callsign FASTAIR 285 weighing more than 136 tonnes would be: a. FASTAIR 285 HEAVY b. FASTAIR 285 c. HEAVY FASTAIR 285 d. FASTAIR 285 WIDEBODY 20. If you are repeating a word or a message for clarity then you should use the phrase: a. I SAY AGAIN 7/45

JAA ATPL QUESTIONS

COMM UNICATIONS

b. DITTO c. I REPEAT d. WORDS TWICE 21. In order to request for a readability check in flight you should use the phrase: a. HOW DO YOU READ b. REQUEST READABILITY CHECK c. RADIO CHECK d. HOW ME 22. Readability 2 means that your transmission is: a. Two way communications have been established b. Readable c. Readable now and then d. Readable but with difficulty 23. The word for the expression “ Have I correctly received the following.” Is: a. ACKNOWLEDGE b. CONFIRM c. VERIFY d. ARE YOU SURE 24. The initial call by the aircraft FASTAIR 345 with MTOE of 136 tonnes should be: a. FASTAIR 345 FAT b. FASTAIR 345 CAUTION WAKE TURBULENCE c. HEAVY FASTAIR 345 d. FASTAIR 345 HEAVY 25. The information in a message from ATC that has to be readback includes: a. Weather, wind b. Everything except hesitation sounds c. QNH, runway in use d. Runway state 8/45

JAA ATPL QUESTIONS

COMM UNICATIONS

26. If you hear the message “FASTER 345 STANDBY ON 118.9 FOR TOWER” you should: a. Change to 118.9 for airfield data b. Call TOWER on 118.9 c. Change frequency to 118.9 and wait for TWOER to call you d. Report: STANDING BY on 118.9 27. The callsign for a radar station (general) would be: a. CONTROL b. CENTRE c. SPARKS d. RADAR 28. What cannot be left out from a position report?\ a. Callsign, Position and Time b. Position, Time, Flight level, Next position and ETA c. Your signature d. Callsign Flight Level and Time 29. Word for the expression “Permission not granted” is: a. NEGATIVE b. NOT APPROVED c. NEVER d. CORRECTION 30. If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: a. Has to fly low level only b. Many proceed with the flight with ATC permission c. Should fly for another company d. Has to cancel the flight 31. An example of a general call is: a. BRAKING ACTION UNRELIABLE b. STOP IMMEDIATELY I SAY AGAIN STOP IMMEDIATELY 9/45

JAA ATPL QUESTIONS

COMM UNICATIONS

c. ALL STATIONS d. GOOD DAY 32. The phrase used by ATC to instruct you to listen out on a frequency is: a. CONTACT b. MONITOR c. TRY d. REPORT 33. When can you not readback a route clearance? a. When it is exactly in accordance with your flight plan b. Never c. When you are in VMC d. When you have better things to do 34. The callsign suffix for an airfield without radar would be: a. RADIO b. APPROACH c. CENTRE d. INFORMATION 35. The phrase used to separate portions of a message is: a. BREAK BREAK b. BREAK c. I SAY AGAIN d. UMM 36. The term “Verify” means: a. Check and confirm with originator b. Confirm your last transmission c. Identify yourself d. Cancel clearance 37. The message “CHECK” to an aircraft means that you should: 10/45

JAA ATPL QUESTIONS

COMM UNICATIONS

a. Confirm that you received and understood the last message b. Examine a system or procedure c. Pass the required information to ATC d. Stay where you are 38. Clearance limit if defined as: a. The height below which you will hit the first obstacle b. The flight level to which an aircraft is granted AYC clearance c. The time at which the ATC clearance expires d. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance 39. The term “RECLEARED” means that: a. A change has been made to your clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance b. Your last chance is confirmed c. You may proceed as you please d. Your last chance has been cancelled 40. The callsign suffix of an area control centre without radar is: a. APPROACH b. CENTRE c. CONTROL d. TOPLESS 41. When the readback of instructions is correct, the phrase used is: a. AFFIRM b. ROGER c. NO PROBLEM d. CORRECT 42. The callsign FASTAIR 1234 can be abbreviated to: a. FOXTROT 34 b. FASTAIR 34 11/45

JAA ATPL QUESTIONS

COMM UNICATIONS

c. 1234 d. No abbreviation 43. The callsign suffix of a station providing clearance delivery would be: a. PRESTO b. CLEARANCE c. DELIVERY d. GROUND

IFR Comms Failure 10 Questions 1. The procedure for an aircraft suffering RT failure during an IFR departure in IMC within Europe is to: a. Give up and return to base b. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome c. Maintain the last cleared level and speed for 20 minutes and then continue with the flight plan d. Hold cleared level for 3 minutes and then continue in accordance with the current flight plan 2. An aircraft under IFR in IMC has radio failure. If not EAT has been received the pilot should aim to start descent over the Navaid serving the approach to the airfield: a. Within 10 minutes of the last acknowledged ETA b. Within 30 minutes of the last acknowledged ETA c. At or as close as possible to the flight plan ETA d. Within 5 minutes of the last acknowledged ETA 3. The procedure to be followed in the event of communications failure after departure for an aircraft that is receiving radar vectors is to: a. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome 12/45

JAA ATPL QUESTIONS

COMM UNICATIONS

b. Maintain the cleared level for 3 minutes and then to continue in accordance with the current flight plan c. Maintain the last cleared level and speed for 20 minutes and then to continue with the flight plan d. Make a three sixty degree turn and get out of controlled airspace 4. The Call “TRANSMITTING BLIND DUE TO RECEIVER FAILURE” is made by: a. An aircraft b. A pilot who cannot find the volume control c. ATC d. The Area Control Centre 5. The procedure for an aircraft suffering communications failure when in IMC en route is to: a. Maintain the last cleared level and speed for 20 minutes after the last expected position report and then continue with the filed flight plan b. Get out of controlled airspace c. Hold cleared level for 3 minutes and then continue in accordance with the current flight plan d. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome 6. The transponder code for radio failure is: a. 5050 b. 7700 c. 7600 d. 7500 7. The procedure for an aircraft that suffers communications failure during an IFR flight in visual met conditions, should: a. Proceed direct to its destination b. Land at the nearest suitable airfield c. Carry out instrument approach at the nearest airfield 13/45

JAA ATPL QUESTIONS

COMM UNICATIONS

d. Maintain at last cleared level and speed for 20minutes and then continue in accordance when the flight plan 8. The procedure for a radio failure during an IFR departure is to: a. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome b. Maintain the last cleared level for 3 minutes and then to continue in accordance with the current flight plan c. Make blind transmissions along the planned route to your destination d. Switch to visual signalling 9. The initial frequency for a blind transmission is: a. The frequency currently in use b. The frequency dialed up without looking c. The emergency frequency d. The area control centre frequency 10. Part of the procedure for an aircraft suffering radio failure IMC en route is to: a. Commence descent from the navigation aid at the holding point as close as possible to the EAT last received or the ETA resulting from the current flight plan to land within 30 minutes of this time b. Maintain the last cleared level for 3 minutes and tehn continue according to current flight plan to the destination c. Make a couple of orbits and return home d. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome

IFR Distress & Urgency 17 Questions 1. The condition that described the state of an aircraft I serious and/or imminent danger and requiring immediate assistance is: a. Flight Safety 14/45

COMM UNICATIONS

JAA ATPL QUESTIONS

b. Urgency c. Hopeless d. Distress 2. The phrase used by ATC to impose radio silence during an emergency situation is: a. MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY OUT b. STOP TRANSMITTING MAYDAY OUT c. HUSH d. DISTRESS TRAFFIC IN PROGRESS 3. The content of an urgency message should include: a. Station called, aircraft callsign, position, cleared route, service required after landing b. Aircraft callsign, nature of emergency, intentions, position, level, heading c. Your company’s name and telephone number d. Aircraft callsign, departure aerodrome, destination, position, level intentions 4. On hearing the message “ALL STATIONS STEPHENVILLE RADAR STOP TRANSMITTING MAYDAY” you should: a. Assist with the emergency b. Not interfere with the distress traffic c. Leave the frequency d. Re-transmit the message 5. The transponder code for unlawful interference is: a. 7500 b. 0007 c. 7600 d. 7700 6. The call from an aircraft in imminent danger is: a. MAYDAY

MAYDAY

MAYDAY

b. OH NO! 15/45

COMM UNICATIONS

JAA ATPL QUESTIONS

c. PAN

PAN

MEDICAL

d. PAN

PAN

PAN

PAN

PAN

PAN

7. The urgency message should include the following information: a. Name of station, aircraft callsign, nature of emergency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading b. Name of station, callsign, present position, level, ETA destination c. Callsign. position, route, destination, endurance d. Captains number, rank and name 8. The priority for an urgency call is: a. Lower than for a Pan Pan medical b. Higher than for everything else but less than for distress c. Same as for flight safety d. Dependant upon the length of the queue 9. The ATC message “DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED” signifies that: a. ATC is shutting shop b. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency c. All aircraft are to end their transmissions d. All aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency 10. An aircraft that wishes to end a MAYDAY situation would transmit the message a. CANCEL DISTRESS b. MAYDAY ENDED c. CANCEL MAYDAY d. DISTRESS CONDITION TERMINATED 11. On hearing an Urgency message a pilot should: a. Change frequency because a radio silence will be imposed b. Maintain a listening watch to see if you can assist in any way c. Acknowledge the message straight away d. Impose a radio silence on the frequency 16/45

JAA ATPL QUESTIONS

COMM UNICATIONS

12. The call “PAN PAN MEDICAL” indicates that: a. One of the flight crew has taken ill b. The flight is concerning a protected medical transport pursuant to 1949 Geneva Convention c. There is concern about the safety of the aircraft or other vehicle or a person on board but does not require immediate assistance d. The crew require medical aid on the pan 13. The state of urgency is defined as a condition: a. Where an aircraft requires an immediate take-off b. Concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board but does not require immediate assistance c. Of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance d. Where the aircraft needs to land immediately because the crew are running out of duty time 14. SAR stands for: a. Search and rescue b. Sing along Romeo c. Single aircraft radio d. Secondary Airborne Radar 15. A setting of 7700 on the transponder indicates: a. AIRCRAFT IS LOST b. DISTRESS c. HI-JACKING d. RADIO FAILURE 16. The frequency 121.5 KHz is the: a. International emergency frequency b. International flight safety frequency 17/45

COMM UNICATIONS

JAA ATPL QUESTIONS

c. Air to air chat frequency d. One way air to ground emergency frequency 17. A protected medical transport is identified by the prefix: a. PAN PAN

PAN PAN

PAN PAN

b. AIR AMBULANCE c. PAN AM d. PAN PAN MEDICAL

IFR Weather Information 3 Questions 1. The phrase “BRAKING CO-EFFICIENT 20” from ATC means that the braking action is: a. Medium b. Slippery c. Medium to poor d. Poor 2. Runway surface condition for which braking action would be unreliable is: a. Wet snow and slush b. Ice c. Dry snow d. Grass 3. Your reply to the message “REPORT FLIGHT CONDITIONS” should be: a. SMOOTH/TURBULENT b. VMC/IMC c. NOT BAD/SO SO d. VFR/IFR

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VFR Definitions 25 Questions 1. The theoretical VHF range that you can obtain at FL50 is: a. 85 nm b. 120nm c. 71nm d. 9nm 2. The abbreviation HJ in the operating hours column for an aerodrome means that the aerodrome: a. Is open from sunset to sunrise b. Has unspecified opening hours c. Is open from sunrise to sunset d. Requires prior permission from inbound aircraft 3. A FIR is defined as: a. A portion of airspace where flight information and alerting service is provided b. A region containing only uncontrolled airspace c. Airspace outside airways d. A region containing only controlled airspace 4. When flying on a SW heading at 3500...