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DMD4A CEU MALOLOSSY. 2016- In establishing cavity form for a Class II amalganm it is IMPORTANT to, I. limit the isthmus width to 1/ the intercuspal distnace whenever possible II. consider the depth rather than width in order to prevent fracture of the filling material III. use pins to protect the la...

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RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS DMD4A CEU MALOLOS SY. 2016-2017 1. In establishing cavity form for a Class II in that tooth wasloose and it was removed. amalganm it is IMPORTANT to, No pulp exposure was evident, but the I. limit the isthmus width to 1/4 tooth was sensitive. The patient cannot be the intercuspal distnace whenever possible seen again for two weeks. The treatment at II. consider the depth rather than this time would be to width in order to prevent fracture of the filling a. smooth the rough edges and reappoint material b. place a zinc phosphate cement III. use pins to protect the large temporary restoration amalgam restoration from fracture c. place a zinc oxide-eugenol cement IV. have slight rounding of internal temporary restoration line angles to relieve stress areas in the tooth d. cement on a metal band or shell with The CORRECT answer is: reinforced zinc oxide-eugenol cement e. dismiss the patient without further a. I,II,III,IV intervention until the next scheduled visit which b. I,II,III,V would provide sufficient time for the obviously c. I,II,IV,V involved treatment d. I,III,IV,V 5. A cavity prepared for a powdered gold e. II,III,IV,V restoration on the proximal surface of an anterior tooth ALWAYS a. includes contact area 2. The use of composite resin for Class I b. extends beneath the crest of the restorations is not generally recommended gingival tissue because its clinical performance is inferior c. contains, 2-planed lingual wall and 2to amalgam with respect to: planed facial wall a. creep d. ends in the facial embrasure to b. fracture facilitate finishing and maintenance of c. occlusal wear the margins d. marginal breakdown e. has enamel walls which meet the e. decay surface of the tooth by following the 3. In the practice of preventive dentistry, general direction of the enamel rods PRIMARY prevention refers to those 6. The MOST frequent complaint of pain after measures taken to placement of an amalgam restoration is a. prevent development of disease in the related to primary dentition a. cold b. prevent disease before evidence of its b. heat occurrence is detected c. sweets c. prevent incipient disease from d. galvanic shock progressing to destructive activity e. biting pressure d. focus priority on those practices which 7. Cuspal reduction DECREASES minimize the loss of teeth a. retention form e. Ensure emphasis on prevention in all b. resistance form dental treatment at any time c. convenience form 4. A patient telephoned that she broke off a d. pulpal involvement big piece of her upper left back tooth. An e. withdrawal form emergency office visit between patients 8. An endodontically trated maxillary central revealed that the facial portion of the incisor with medorated sized mesial and maxillary left second molar was sheared off distal composite resin restorations level with the gingival tissue. A MOD inlay

RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS DMD4A CEU MALOLOS SY. 2016-2017 involving the facial surface and a heavy c. evaluate each patient only after total occlusion would BEST be treated by patient treatment has been completed restoring it with d. occasionally spot evaluate patients only after total patient treatment a. post--retained porcelain metal full rendered at the next recall crown b. post-retained porcelain jacket crown e. evaluate the treatment rendered at c. composite resin the next recall appointment in order d. 3/4 gold crown to benefit from the service of an e. none of the above expanded-function auxiliary 9. The location of the gingival margin in the 13. A split tooth will frequently display which preparation of proximal cavities is of the following symptoms and signs? influenced by the I. no radiographic evidence I. need for retention of a cast restoration II. moderate pain, transient in nature II. amount of gingival recession III. sensitivity to pressure III. need to extend gingivally to clear the IV. thermal sensitivity contact area The correct answer is: IV. convenience form of the cavity a. I,II The correct answer is: b. II,III a. I,II c. III,IV d. II,III,IV b. I, III e. all of the above c. II,III d. II,IV 14. Of the following, the PRINCIPAL objective e. III,IV of interproximal wedging when placing a 10. Inflammation of the pulp is MOST often restoration is to associated with a. obtain the desired separation of the teeth a. trauma b. galvanism b. mark the gingival extent of the c. occlusion restoration c. control gingival hemorrhage d. dental caries e. gingivitis d. depress the gingival tissue 11. Pit and fissue caries is USUALLY e. increase the pulp characterized by cones of decay that 15. In planning the location fro placement of a. are apex to base at the DEJ pins for a pin-retaining amalgam, one should provide for b. are base to base at the DEJ c. are apex to apex to DEJ a. at least 3mm of pin extension into the d. have no general pattern at the DEJ amalgam e. are unrecognizable b. parallelism of the pins if more than 12. An expanded-function dental auxiliary has one is used demonstrated to you that he can regularly c. a pin in the central dentin area of each complete a procedure at an acceptable cusp to be restores d. 1mm of dentin between the pin and quality level. Unless specifically requested to aid in a procedure, you should the DEJ 16. One of the advantages of a cast gold inlay is a. continue to evaluate all treatment rendered by the auxiliary a. highly pleasing aesthetic qualities b. occasionally spot evaluate procedures b. superior caries inhibitory qualities as a quality control c. allowance for a cementing medium to be used

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RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS DMD4A CEU MALOLOS SY. 2016-2017 d. capability of restoring anatomic form c. unnecessar since the remaining tooth e. that it prevents further decay structure is strong What happens to the surface hardness of d. provided by a steep cavosurface area to remove enamel prisms not gold foil during condensation? a. is increased supported by dentin b. is decreased e. not recommended c. remains unaltered 22. An ACCEPTABLE medicament for treating d. either increases or decreases sensitive eroded areas in anterior teeth is depending upon the size of condenser a. phenol point used b. precipitated silver nitrate e. either increases or decreases c. eugenol or other essential oils depending upon the force applied to d. a paste composed of sodium fluoride, kaolin and glycerin the condenser When using acid-etch technique with e. a ten percent stannous fluoride composite resins, one solution used to etch solution enamel is 23. Which of the following statements are a. 50% silicophosphoric acid CORRECT? b. 75% phosphoric acid I. Dental hand instruments are divided c. 25% hydrofluoric acid in a buffer into the ff. parts: handle, shank, blade, cutting edge, nib,and face or point d. 50% phosphoric acid in water e. 30% hydrochloric acid in salt water II. Cutting instruments have a handle, a The shape of cavity preparation that best shank, a blade, and a cutting edge resists displacement of the restoration in III. Noncutting instruments have a handle, any direction is called _____ form . a shank, a nib, and a face or point a. outline IV. Dr. Black also evolved the instruments b. resistance according to order names, suborder names, class names, and sub-class c. retention d. convenience names. e. restraining V. Dr. Black also evolved the instrument One of the claims for the superiority of formula by which instruments could composite resin restorations over silicate be really duplicated anywhere. cement restorations is that resin VI. For example, the number of a gingival restorations margin trimmer is given as 15-95-8a. final outline form of the cavity has 12R. The first 2 digits(15) of the been established formula designate the width of the b. resistance and retention form has blade in tenths of mm, the 3rd and 4th digits (95) its length in mm, and the 5th been established digit(8) represents the angle which the c. rubber dam has been placed d. cavity has been sterilized blade forms with the axis of the e. non of the above handle expressed in hundredths of a Finishing the enamel at the gingival circle(centigrades). WIth the cavosurface angle of a Class II cavity instruments in which the cutting edge preparation for amalgam is is at an angle to the length of the blade, the 6th and 7th digits represent a. contraindicated because of the low edge strength of amalgam the angle made by the edge with the b. provided by a steep cavosurface bevel axis of the handle, expressed in of the enamel margin centigrade. The letter (R or L) signifies

RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS DMD4A CEU MALOLOS SY. 2016-2017 that the instrument is one of a pair e. Restore all teeth as slowly as possible made in rights and lefts in order to using silver amalgam work more efficiently. 27. The dietary carbohydrate most likely The correct answer is: involved in the etiology of dental caries in man is a. I,III,V a. glucose b. II,IV,VI b. sucrose c. I,II,III,IV c. dextran d. I,II,III,IV,V d. polysaccharide e. I,II,III,IV,V,VI e. that produced by Streptocooccus 24. Which of the following procedures should mutans be accomplished after an inlay is cemented 28. The potential for marginal leakage related permanently and before the cement has to temperature change occurs to the set? greatest extent with a. Remove occlusal interferences a. amalgam alloy b. Deepen the occlusal sluiceways b. silicate cement c. Polish the inlay with sand paper disks c. unfilled resin d. Burnish all margins for final d. composite resin adpatation e. direct filling gold e. Complete the polishing by use of 29. Dental wax patterns should be invested as rubber cups and fine abrasive soon as possible after fabrication in order 25. Which of the following materials has to minimize change in the shape caused by fluorides incorporated into it by the use of a. reduced flow a fluoride flux in its manufacture? b. drying out of the wax a. Zinc silicophosphate cement c. relaxation of internal stress b. zinc phosphate cement d. continued expansion of the wax c. polycarboxylate cement e. increased flow d. BIS-GMA cement 30. Which of the following agents may be used e. EBA-alumina cement on dentin as a cavity medicament because 26. After a thorough examination, a teen-aged it does not irritate the dental pulp? patient is found to have numerous carious a. silver nitrate lesions . Most of the proximal surfaces of b. phenol the molars and the premolars are carious c. prednisolone to the extent that much of the occlusal d. alcohol enamel appears to be undermined. Of the e. chloroform following courses of treatment, which f. ethyl chloride would be the wisest to follow? 31. Which of the following agents may be used a. Restore all teeth as rapidly as possible, on dentin as a cavity medicament because using silver amalgam it does not irritate the dental pulp? b. Place patient on a prevention regime g. silver nitrate and delay treatment until h. phenol effectiveness of home care is i. prednisolone evaluated j. alcohol c. Restore all teeth with gold inlays to k. chloroform utilize the strength of this material l. ethyl chloride d. Excavate all carious lesions and place 32. In working as a team, the position of the intermediary restorative ZOE before chairside assistant should be completing a treatment plan.

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RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS DMD4A CEU MALOLOS SY. 2016-2017 a. lower than the dentist to facilitate c. Recent techniques of acid etching of visibility enamel have produced chemical b. at the same height as the dentist adhesion to enamel in the mouth d. Chemical adhesion is demonstrated in because they are working as a team c. higher than the dentist for proper clinical performance of access and visibility to the patient’s polycarboxylate cements e. None of the above oral cavity d. varied, dependeing upon where the 37. Use if a rubber dam is most indicated for dentist is working which of the following procedures? e. none of the above I. Removal of carious dentin from deep In restoring a Class II cavity, an onlay is lesions indicated when the II. pulp capping a. need for extra retention exists III. placement of direct filling gold b. patient has a high caries index IV. removal of an old amalgam restoration c. opposing tooth has full coverage V. opening into the pulp chamber to drain an acute periapical abscess d. dentinal support of the cusps is questionable The correct answer is: e. tooth is erupting but has not reached a. I,II,III functional occlusion b. I,II,V f. all of the above c. I,III,IV A posterior tooth under a heavy occlusal d. II,III,V load has cusps undermined with caries. The e. IV,V restorative material of choice would be 38. The anterior determinant of occlusion is a. cast gold the b. silver amalgam a. horizontal and vertical overlap c. composite resin relation of anterior teeth d. direct filling gold b. horizontal overlap relation of anterior e. pure resin teeth only Pulpal irritation would not be expected c. vertical overlap relation of anterior from any restorative material provided the teeth only minimal thickness of the material was d. cuspal inclinationin dergees a. 0.2mm e. cuspal declination in degrees b. 0.5mm 39. A frequent cause of interdental papillae c. 1.0mm protruding from beneath the rubber dam is d. 2.0mm a. edematous gingival tissue e. 3.0mm b. holes place too far apart Which of the following statements is true c. using a light-weight dam regarding chemical adhesion in clinical d. holes placed too close together restorative materials? e. not using individual ligation of each a. Resins exhibit chemical adhesive tooth properties to hard tooth structure in 40. The use of functional occlusal registration the mouth presupposes that b. Chemical adhesion to hard tooth a. the teeth to be restored are extruded tissue under oral conditions does not b. the opposing teeth are in need of exist major restoration c. it is impossible to make use of an anatomic registration

RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS DMD4A CEU MALOLOS SY. 2016-2017 d. the opposing teeth are in harmony a. I,II,V with the remaining dentition b. II,III e. the opposing teeth are in need of c. II,III,IV minor restoration d. II,III,V 41. The purpose of prednisione in conjunction e. III,IV,V with operative properties is to f. all of the above 45. The greatest precentage of tooth loss in the a. reduce the tendency for an acute inflammatory response within the first two decades of life (except natural loss of deciduous teeth) is due to pulp b. promote healing of the irritated pulp a. a peridontal disease tissue b. treated dental caries c. serve as an obtundent c. untreated dental caries d. delay healing of the irritated pulp d. trauma to tooth from accidents tissue e. non of the above e. all of the above 46. What is added to render the surface of 42. The property which most closely describes impression hydrophilic? the ability of a cast-gold inlay to be a. Base burnished is b. Catalyst a. elastic limit b. ultimate strength c. Plasticizer c. percentage of elongation d. Surfactant d. modulus of resilience e. Reactors e. modulus of elasticity 43. The form of a Class II cavity preparation for an amalgam restoration inlcudes: Rationale: Surfactant allows the I. Extending the cavity to the line angles impression material to wet sof of the tooth or beyond tissue better and to be poured in II. Beveling all enamel walls stone more effectively. III. Removing unsupported enamel along the gingival wall IV. rounding the axiopulpal line angle 47. Which of the following are The correct answer is: a. I,II,III b. I,II,IV c. II,III,V d. II,IV,V e. III,IV,V f. all of the above 44. Direct functions of the mature dental pulp include: I. enamel formation II. formation of dentin structure III. to furnish nerve and blood supply of teeth IV. cementum formation V. periodontal ligament formation The correct answer is:

characteristic features of proximal caries on premolars and molars: a) Spreading-cone shaped into enamel, the base of the cone being the deepest part. b) Spreading-cone shaped into enamel, the apex of the cone being the deepest part c) Spreading-cone shaped into dentin in a conical form, the apex pointing toward the pulp

RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS DMD4A CEU MALOLOS SY. 2016-2017

d) Spreading-cone shaped into dentin in a conical form, the base pointing toward the pulp

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

Rationale: Smooth surface caries and pit and fissure caries progression is illustrated below.

Distofaciopulpal Distolinguopulpal Axiofaciopulpal Axiolinguopulpal Axiofaciogingival Axiolinguogingival

49. The gold alloys used for casting contain at least percent of precious metals a) 55% b) 65% c) 75% d) 85% Rationale: According to ADA Specification no. 5 50. If a gold alloy has a fineness of 750, it has how many carats? a) 14 b) 16 c) 18 d) 20 Rationale: A 24 carat gold is pure gold and the equivalent of 1000 fine.

48. In MO preparation, there are how many point angles? a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8 Rationale: A point angle is a junction of three walls forming a point. In two surface Class two preparation, there are 6 point angles. They are:

51. What ADA Specification number is for casting investments for dental gold alloys? a. b. c. d. e.

1 2 3 4 5 Rationale: The American Dental Association (ADA) Specification No. 2 for casting investments for dental gold alloys encompasses

RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS DMD4A CEU MALOLOS SY. 2016-2017

three types of investments. (Type I, II, III). The types are determined by whether the appliance to be fabricated is fixed or removable, and the method of obtaining the expansion is required to compensate for the contraction of the molten gold alloy during solidification.

52. Geriatric population group considered as the young-old: a. 55-64 years old b. 65-74 years old c. 75-84 years old d. 85 years and above e. None of the above Rationale: Ages 65-74 are considered to be young old. Old for 75-84 years old and old-old for 85 years and above. 53. Special problems that will have a high dental impact on the geriatric patient EXCEPT: a. lack of adaptive potential b. poor plaque control c. root caries d. periodontal breakdown and levels of toothwear. e. None of the above f. All of the above Rationale: All will have a high dental impact to geriatric patients. 54. Which is true about hardness?

a. Predicts the wear resistance of a material and its ability to abrade opposing dental structures b. Based on its ability to accept scratching c. Yield to indentation d. B & C only e. All of the above Rationale: Hardness pertains to Choice A; Choice B and Choice C is a negation of the characteristics of hardness which are: Based on its ability to RESIST scratching and RESISTANCE to indentation. 55. What is added to render the surface of impression hydrophilic? a) b) c) d) e)

Base Catalyst Plasticizer Surfactant Reactors

Rationale: Surfactant allows the impression material to wet sof tissue better and tbe poured in stone more effectively.

56. Enamel bonding in the placement of resin restoratives: a. greatly reduces marginal leakage b. conserves tooth structure c. gives complete permanency to the restoration

RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS DMD4A CEU MALOLOS SY. 2016-2017

d. results in a smooth surface finish with composite Rationale: Marginal leakage is essentially eliminated if the enamel bonding technique is utilized in conjunction with placement of a composite. The preparation outline form for reception may be minimal. Even if a glazed would be applied its longevity is limited and the basic underlying composite is not an will not remain smooth nor will it endure permanently. 57. Setting time of zinc phosphate cement may be increased by: a. using a slab cooled to just above the dew point b. using a lower ratio of liquid to powder c. using a longer mixing time d. adding the increments of a powder slowly e. a,b,c f. a,c,d g. b,c,d h. all of the above are correct Rationale: The more liquid employed to the ratio of...