Biology 131 final exam review PDF

Preview

Summary

Final exam review of the digestive, urinary, and reproductive system...

Description

Digestive System Multiple Choice Questions 1) The enterohepatic circulation reabsorbs bile salts in the distal portion of the small intestine (ileum). All of the following statements about the enterohepatic circulation are true except one. Select the statement below that is NOT true of the enterohepatic circulation? C) All of the components of bile are recycled by this circulation. 2) Which of the following is the best illustration of the difference between metabolism and digestion? C) Metabolism comprises all of the chemical reactions preformed within the body while digestion is only the breakdown of food within the GI tract. 3) Which of the following is least involved in the mechanical breakdown of food, digestion, or absorption? C) the esophagus 4) Which of the following would likely be absorbed in the stomach? B) a serving of alcohol 5) Which of the following is the best explanation of the benefit in the digestive system having the largest collection of lymphoid tissue (MALT) at the distal end of the small intestine? B) The huge numbers of bacteria living in the large intestine must be prevented from entering the lumen of the small intestine and being absorbed with food's nutrients into the blood stream. 6) Bile salts break up the fat globule into smaller fat droplets. This role of bile salts is best described as ________. C) lipid emulsification 7) A doctor consulting a patient that recently has had their gall bladder removed would likely advise ________. C) eating foods that are low in fat 8) A ruptured appendix is life threatening because ________. B) it is likely to cause massive infection of the abdominopelvic cavity 9) All but one of the following is a function of the low pH found in the stomach. Select the description below that does NOT reflect a role of stomach acid. C) The stomach's acid catabolically breaks down food stuffs in preparation for absorption. 10) Fat absorption through the plasma membrane of epithelial cells ________. A) occurs by simple diffusion because lipids are able to penetrate the hydrophobic fatty acid tails within the plasma membrane 11) Select the best explanation for why protease enzymes are secreted in inactive forms. C) The cells producing inactive enzymes are themselves protected from the enzymes until they are safely within the lumen of the GI tract.

12) Select the description below that illustrates a difference between a sphincter and circular muscle. B) A sphincter is a thickening of circular muscle that can prevent the movement of digesting materials while circular muscle is involved in propulsion digesting material. 13) In the enteric nervous system, a long reflexive pathway has an advantage over a short reflexive pathway in the fact that ________. C) long reflexive pathways can be stimulated by things outside of the GI tract 14) The sight of food can trigger a series of events that results in the release of gastric juice. All but one of the following is true in regards to the previous statement. Select the one answer that is NOT true. C) The motor nerves of this pathway are part of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. 15) All of the following are true of swallowing (deglutition) except one. Select the statement that is NOT true of swallowing. C) The epiglottis assists in propelling food into the trachea. 16) Some antacid drugs block histamine receptors, resulting in reduction of the production and excretion of stomach acid. These drugs have the biggest effect on which of the following? C) parietal cells 17) Which of the following is NOT a function of cholecystokinin (CCK)? A) increase production of stomach acid 18) Generally, the hormones secretin and cholecystokinin which are released by duodenal enteroendocrine cells will ________. C) increase the release of digestive enzymes and bile 19) Select the one response below that would NOT result from a drug that blocks histamine receptors in the cells lining the stomach. C) It would cause the release of secretin and cholecystokinin. 20) Specific enteroendocrine cells of the stomach, called G cells, are stimulated by partially digested proteins, caffeine, and rising pH. When stimulated, G cells secrete ________. A) ghrelin B) pepsin C) hydrochloric acid D) gastrin 21) The mechanical and chemical receptors that control digestive activity are located ________. B) in the walls of the tract organs 22) The function of the hepatic portal circulation is to ________.

B) collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing in the liver 23) The chemical and mechanical processes of food breakdown are called ________. A) digestion 24) When we ingest large molecules such as lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins, they must undergo catabolic reactions whereby enzymes split these molecules. This series of reactions is called ________. C) chemical digestion 25) The sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in place are called ________. A) mesenteries 26) From the esophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every organ of the alimentary canal are made up of the same four basic layers. Arrange them in order from the lumen. D) mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa 27) Which of the following is NOT a factor that helps create the stomach mucosal barrier? D) secretion of pepsinogen 28) What part of the tooth bears the force and resists the friction of chewing? B) enamel 29) The capillaries that nourish the epithelium and absorb digested nutrients lie in the ________. D) lamina propria 30) Choose the incorrect statement regarding bile. D) Bile contains enzymes for digestion. 31) The absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine is enhanced by increasing the surface area of the mucosal lining. Which of the following accomplish this task? A) villi, and microvilli 32) Select the statement that is true concerning primary teeth. C) There are 20 primary teeth, and by 24 months of age, most children have all 20. 33) Which of the following is true concerning the number and type of permanent teeth? A) There are 32 permanent teeth, and the wisdom teeth are the last to emerge. 34) Which of the following is NOT true of saliva? D) contains acids which aid in chemical digestion 35) Which of the following is NOT found in saliva? A) urea and uric acid B) electrolytes C) lysozyme

D) protease 36) The bolus is liquefied in the ________ and it is now called chyme. B) stomach 37) Peristaltic waves are ________. D) waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another 38) Pepsinogen, an inactive digestive enzyme, is secreted by the ________. A) chief cells of the stomach 39) You have just eaten a meal high in complex carbohydrates. Which of the following enzymes will help to digest the meal? B) amylase 40) The ducts that deliver bile and pancreatic juice from the liver and pancreas, respectively, unite to form the ________. D) hepatopancreatic ampulla 41) Short-chain triglycerides found in foods such as butterfat molecules in milk are split by a specific enzyme in preparation for absorption. Which of the following enzymes is responsible? C) lipase 42) Hepatocytes do NOT ________. A) produce digestive enzymes 43) Which vitamin requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed? B) B12 44) Gastric pits, as opposed to gastric glands, are completely lined with ________. B) enteroendocrine cells 45) Chemical digestion reduces large complex molecules to simpler compounds by the process of ________. B) catabolism 46) The ________ contains lobules with sinusoids (lined with macrophages) that lead to a central venous structure. A) liver 47) Digestion and absorption of which of the following would be affected the most if the liver were severely damaged? A) lipids 48) The dental formula for an adult is 2-1-2-3. What does the 1 stand for? D) canine tooth

49) The lamina propria is composed of ________. A) loose connective tissue 50) Which of the following is (are) NOT important as a stimulus in the gastric phase of gastric secretion? A) distention B) carbohydrates C) peptides D) low acidity 51) The function of goblet cells is to ________. B) produce mucus that protects parts of the digestive organs from the effects of powerful enzymes needed for food digestion 52) Which of the following is an essential role played by large intestine bacteria? C) synthesis of vitamin K 53) Nervous control of gastric secretion is provided by ________. B) the vagus nerve and enteric plexus 54) Which of the following are types of papillae on the tongue that contain taste buds? A) fungiform and circumvallate 55) Which of the following produce intrinsic factor? A) parietal cells 56) Which of the following enzymes would be most active in the presence of high concentrations of protein fragments? C) trypsin 57) A child with restricted tongue movement may have a surgery that involves the cutting of the ________. A) lingual frenulum 58) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the large intestine? C) It is longer than the small intestine. 59) What stomach secretion is necessary for normal hemoglobin production in RBCs? C) intrinsic factor 60) Select the correct statement about the regulation of gastric secretion. C) Gastric secretion can be stimulated before food has entered the mouth. 61) Paneth cells ________. bacteria

62) Select the correct statement about absorption. C) In the rare case that intact, whole proteins are transported across the mucosal endothelium, an immune response may be generated. 63) Which is NOT true of lipid absorption? A) Fatty acids and monoglycerides are absorbed passively by diffusion. B) Products of lipid digestion are transported to the blood by the lymphatic system. C) Fatty acids and monoglycerides are packaged with proteins to form chylomicrons. D) Enterocytes require the presence of lipoprotein lipase to effectively absorb micelles. 64) The ingestion of a meal high in fat content would cause which of the following to occur? C) Bile would be released from the gallbladder to emulsify the fat in the duodenum. 65) Hormones or paracrines that inhibit gastric secretion include ________. B) secretin 66) Which of these is NOT part of the splanchnic circulation? B) inferior vena cava 67) Which of these is NOT a component of saliva? A) lysozyme B) a cyanide derivative C) defensins D) metabolic waste

Urinary System Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is the best explanation for why the cells of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) contain so many mitochondria? A) A great deal of active transport takes place in the PCT. 2) What is the best explanation for the microvilli on the apical surface of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)? B) They increase the surface area and allow for a greater volume of filtrate components to be reabsorbed. 3) The thin segment of the nephron loop's descending limb ________. D) aids in the passive movement of water out of the tubule 4) The relatively long half-life of lipid-soluble hormones (steroid hormones) compared to watersoluble hormones is due in part to the way that these hormones are passed into the filtrate from the glomerular capillaries. From the list below select the best explanation for why lipid-soluble (steroid) hormones have a relatively long half-life. A) Steroid hormones travel in the plasma on large transport proteins that cannot pass through the

filtration membrane. 5) The presence of protein in the urine indicates which of the following? C) damage to the filtration membrane 6) Hydrostatic pressure is the primary driving force of plasma through the filtration membrane into the capsular space. All but one of the following statements reflects why hydrostatic pressure is so high in the glomerular capillaries. Select the one statement that does NOT explain the high pressure within the glomerular capillaries. D) The volume of plasma in the efferent arteriole is higher when compared to the afferent arteriole. 7) Cells and transport proteins are physically prevented from passing through the filtration membrane. This has the following effect on filtration. C) increasing osmotic pressure in the glomerular capillaries that reduces the amount of filtration 8) If the diameter of the afferent arterioles leading to the glomerulus increases (vasodilation), which of the following is NOT likely to occur? D) Systemic blood pressure will go up. 9) If the diameter of the efferent arterioles leading away from the glomerulus increases (vasodilation), which of the following is NOT likely to occur? D) Systemic blood pressure will decrease. 10) If the diameter of the afferent arterioles leading to the glomerulus decreases (vasoconstriction), which of the following is NOT likely to occur? D) Systemic blood pressure will decrease. 11) If the diameter of the efferent arterioles leading away from the glomerulus decreases (vasoconstriction), which of the following is NOT likely to occur? D) Systemic blood pressure will go up. 12) If the glomerular mesangial cells contract, reducing the overall surface area of the glomerulus, which of the following is NOT likely to occur? B) Systemic blood pressure will be lowered. 13) If blood pressure drops very low (MAP is below 80mmHg) renin enzyme will be secreted by granular cells. Which of the following is NOT likely to occur? D) Kidney perfusion will increase. 14) Which of the following statements best describes the difference between the intrinsic and extrinsic controls of the kidney? B) Extrinsic controls have the greatest effect on systemic blood pressure while intrinsic controls have a greater effect on GFR. 15) Reabsorption of nutrients like glucose and amino acids takes place in the proximal

convoluted tubule (PCT) via cotransporters that utilize secondary active transport. Which of the following would stop the reabsorption of glucose at the apical surface of the cells in the PCT? C) loss of Na+-K+ ATPase in the basolateral surface of PCT cells 16) Bulk flow of nutrients, ions and water into the peritubular capillaries is the result of all of the following except one. Select the answer below that does NOT describe a cause of bulk flow of fluids into the peritubular capillaries. D) leaky tight junctions of peritubular capillary's endothelium 17) The mechanism that establishes the medullary osmotic gradient depends most on the permeability properties of the ________. A) nephron loop 18) Which of the following is NOT associated with the renal corpuscle? B) a vasa recta 19) An increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to a(n) ________. B) increase in the production of ADH 20) The urinary bladder is composed of ________ epithelium. A) transitional 21) The kidneys are stimulated to produce renin ________. C) by a decrease in the blood pressure 22) Which of the choices below is NOT a function of the urinary system? D) eliminates solid, undigested wastes and excretes carbon dioxide, water, salts, and heat 23) The ________ artery lies on the boundary between the cortex and medulla of the kidney. B) arcuate 24) The glomerulus differs from other capillaries in the body in that it ________. C) is drained by an efferent arteriole 25) The descending limb of the nephron loop ________. D) contains fluid that becomes more concentrated as it moves down into the medulla 26) Select the correct statement about the ureters. C) The ureters are capable of peristalsis like that of the gastrointestinal tract. 27) The fatty tissue surrounding the kidneys is important because it ________. B) stabilizes the position of the kidneys by holding them in their normal position 28) The renal corpuscle is made up of ________. A) Bowman's capsule and glomerulus

29) The functional and structural unit of the kidneys is the ________. A) nephron 30) Which of the following does NOT describe the juxtaglomerular complex? D) Its macula densa cells produce aldosterone. 31) The chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood across the filtration membrane is ________. C) glomerular hydrostatic pressure (glomerular blood pressure) 32) Which of the following acts as the trigger for the initiation of micturition (voiding)? A) the stretching of the bladder wall 33) The filtration membrane includes all EXCEPT ________. C) renal fascia 34) The mechanism of water reabsorption by the renal tubules is ________. B) osmosis 35) The glomerular capsular space contains ________. A) urine B) blood C) filtrate D) plasma 36) The macula densa cells respond to ________. D) changes in Na+ content of the filtrate 37) Which of the following is NOT reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule? D) creatinine 38) The fluid in glomerular capsule is similar to plasma except that it does NOT contain a significant amount of ________. D) plasma protein 39) Alcohol acts as a diuretic because it ________. D) inhibits the release of ADH 40) The function of angiotensin II is to ________. A) constrict arterioles and increase blood pressure 41) An important physical characteristic of urine is its specific gravity or density, which is ________. B) slightly higher than water

42) Place the following in correct sequence from the formation of a drop of urine to its elimination from the body. 1. major calyx 2. minor calyx 3. nephron 4. urethra 5. ureter 6. collecting duct D) 3, 6, 2, 1, 5, 4 43) Select the correct statement about the nephrons. A) The parietal layer of the glomerular capsule is simple squamous epithelium. 44) What would happen if the capsular hydrostatic pressure were increased above normal? B) Net filtration would decrease. 45) Which of the following is NOT a part of the juxtaglomerular complex? C) podocyte cells 46) Which of the following is incorrect? A) The kidneys produce a large volume of dilute urine when overhydrated. B) The kidneys produce a small volume of concentrated urine when dehydrated. C) Urine concentration and volume are determined by countercurrent mechanisms D) The concentration of urine is lower when urine volume is reduced. 47) Reabsorption of high levels of glucose and amino acids in the filtrate is accomplished by ________. D) secondary active transport 48) Which of the choices below is a function of the nephron loop? B) form a large volume of very dilute urine or a small volume of very concentrated urine 49) What is the effect of antidiuretic hormone on the cells of the collecting duct? A) causes aquaporins to be inserted into the apical membranes B) triggers synthesis of more sodium channels in the apical membranes C) triggers synthesis of more potassium channels in the apical membranes D) inhibits sodium reabsorption through the apical membranes 50) Which of the following hormones acting on the collecting duct is most responsible for retaining sodium ions in the blood? A) antidiuretic hormone 51) The factor that promotes filtrate formation at the glomerulus is the ________. B) glomerular hydrostatic pressure

52) Glomerular filtration rate can be controlled by manipulating one major variable, which is ________. C) glomerular hydrostatic pressure 53) If one says that the clearance value of glucose is zero, what does this mean? C) 100% of glucose is reabsorbed. 54) Excretion of dilute urine requires ________. B) impermeability of the collecting tubule to water 55) Which of the choices below is NOT a method by which the cells of the renal tubules can raise blood pH? D) by secreting sodium ions 56) In the ascending limb of the nephron loop the ________. D) thick segment moves ions out into interstitial spaces for reabsorption 57) Except for potassium ions, tubular secretion of most unwanted substances occurs in the ________. A) proximal convoluted tubule 58) What is the most direct function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus? A) help regulate blood pressure and the rate of blood filtration by the kidneys 59) Which of the choices below is the salt level-monitoring part of the nephron? A) macula densa 60) Which of the hormones below is responsible for facultative water reabsorption? A) ADH 61) Which of the choices below is NOT a glomerular filtration rate control method? C) electrolyte levels 62) Which of the choices below are the most important hormone regulators of electrolyte reabsorption and secretion? B) angiotensin II and aldosterone

Reproductive System

Multiple Choice Questions 1) All of the following things occur during meio...