EXam 2018, questions and answers PDF

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Endo Perio Exam...

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ENDODONTICS AND PERIODONTOLOGY EXAM 1.The root end is ultrasonically prepared during endodontic surgery for which of the following reasons? A.It results in apical cracks at low setting B.It results in larger, but cleaner, cavity walls C.It can make a deeper cavity more safely than a bur D.It does not require as acute an angle of root resection 2. The following are true regarding shaping procedures, except:*** A.Shaping is performed afer cleaning of the apical one third of the canal to ensure patency☑ A.Shaping facilitates placement of instruments to the working length by increasing the coronal taper B.Shaping permits a more accurate assessment of the apical, cross-sectional canal diameter C.Shaping is necessary procedure because calcification occurs from the coronal portion of the canal to the apex 3. The result of RCT in establishing patency is: A.It prevents procedural errors, such as canal blockage and transportaton☑ A.It causes irritation of the periodontal attachment apparatus and increased post operative pain B.It enlarges the apical terminus and increases the potential for extrusion of obturating material C.It requires insertion of a file 1.0 to 2.0 mm beyond the canal terminus 4. The most important route of bacteria into the dental pulp is from: A.General circulation via anachoresis A.Exposure to the oral cavity via caries☑ B.The gingival sulcus 5. The least important factor influencing the pathogenicity of endodontic flora is: A.Microbial interaction A.Exotoxins released by living bacteria☑ B.Endotoxins released after bacterial death C.Enzymes produced by bacteria 6. Calcium hydroxide is advocated as an interappointment medication primarily because of: A.Its ability to dissolve necrotic tissue B.It ability to stimulate hard-tissue formation A.Its antmicrobial actvity☑ C.Its ability to temporarily seal the canal 7. Which of the following statements regarding Hedstrom files are accurate? A.They are manufactured by machining a round cross-sectonal wire☑ A.They are effective when used in a reaming action B.They are safer than K-files, because external signs of stress are more visible as changes in flute design C.They are aggressive because of a negative-rake angle that is parallel to the shaft 8. A barbed roach is most useful for: A.Removal of coton, paper points and other objects from the canal☑ A.Removal of vital tissue from fine canals B.Initial planing of the canal walls C.Coronal-orifice enlargement before establishing the correct working length D.All of the above 9. The smear layer on dentin walls acts to prevent pulpal injury for which of the following? A.It reduces diffusion of toxic substance through the tubules☑ B.It resists the effects of acid etching of the dentin

C.It eliminates the need for cavity liner or base D.Its bactericidal activity against oral microorganisms

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10. Which of the following statements regarding sodium hypochlorite used as a root canal irrigating solution is accurate? A.It is bufered to pH of 12 to 13, which increases toxicity☑ A.It exhibits a chelating action on dentin B.It should be used in higher concentrations because of the increased fee chlorine available C.It is a good wetting agent that permits the solution to flow into canal irregularities D.All of the above statements are accurate 11. When is endodontic treatment is contraindicated? A.The patient has no motivation to maintain the tooth☑ B.The canal appears to be calcified C.Class III mobility and loss of bone support D.The tooth needs periodontal drown lengthening before restoration 12. The following statements are true regarding endogram, except: A.Provide information on the extent of internal resoprtive lesion B.Visualization of fractures and leaking restoration is attributed to the incorporation of Hypaque in the irrigating solution C.Conventional radiography and digital radiography may both be used in producing an endogram A.It is used to confm the correct working length☑ 13. Which of the following regarding gauging and tuning is correct?*** A.Gauging is performed in the coronal portion of the canal to confirm if the coronal enlargement is complete B.Tuning identifies the most apical, of the canal cross-sectional diameter A.Gauging and tuning verify the completed shaping of the apical porton of the canal☑ C.Gauging and tuning produces a uniform, cylindric diameter to the canal in the apical 2 to 3mm that enhances obturation and sealing 14. Which of the following teeth is most likely to exhibit C-shaped morphology? A.Maxillary first premolar B.Maxillary first molar A.Mandibular frst premolar☑ C.Mandibular first molar 15. An advantage to AH26 as an endodontic sealer is: A.The releases on formaldehyde on setting A.Low toxicity☑ B.Long working time, but quick setting at body temperature C.It can be distinguished from gutta-percha radiographically 16. N2, Endomethasone, and Reibler, s paste are sealers that: A.Produce liquefaction necrosis in the periradicular tissues B.Induce healing in the apical pulp wound after vital pulp extirpation A.Can cause periapical infammaton☑ 17. Pulpal and periradicular pathosis results primarily from: A.Traumatic injury cause by heat during cavity preparation B.Toxicity of dental materials C.Bacterial invasion A.Immunologic reactons☑ 18. The highest incidence of pulp necrosis is associated with: A.Class V preparation on root surface B.Inlay preparation of dental materials

C.Partial veneer preparation A.Full-crown preparaton☑

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19. The response of the pulp to a recently placed amalgam without cavity lining is usually A.Slight-to-moderate infammaton☑ A.Moderate-to-severe inflammation B.Slight but increasing severe in time 20. Which of the following statements regarding pulp stimulation with cold is accurate? A.It is best accomplished with cardon dioxide snow☑ B.It is an accurate assessment of pulp vitality C.It directly stimulates the pain fibers in the pulp D.It is best determined with blast of air 21. When is an application of heater-injected gutta-percha potentially beneficial? A.When there is an open apex A.When there are aberratons or irregularites of the canal☑ B.When the clinician cannot master lateral condensation C.When the canal are curved and small after preparation 22. A problem with nickel-and-titanium (NiTi) spreaders is which of the following? A.Tendency to buckle under compaction pressure☑ B.Tendency to break during condensation C.Creation of grater wedging forces, leading to root fracture D.They do not penetrate as deeply as stainless spreaders under equal force 23. When using the balanced-force technique for canal preparation, which of the following statements are accurate? A.The cutting stroke involves apical pressure and a counterclockwise rotation☑ B.Clockwise rotation balances the tendency of the file to be drawn into the canal during the cutting stroke C.Dentin is engaged with a counterclockwise rotation and cut with a 45-to 90-degree, clockwise rotation D.It requires the use of a crown down technique

24. Moderate extrusion of obturating materials beyond the apex is undesirable because of which of the following?

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A.There is more likelihood of postoperative discomfort B.Sealer and gutta-percha cause a sever, inflammatory reaction in periradicular tissue C.The prognosis is poorer D.All of the above☑ 25. Presence of gutta-percha beyond the apex is usually caused by which of the following? A.Use of too small master cone B.Excessive heating and compaction during warm, vertical condensation A.Destructon of the natural apical constricton☑ C.All of the above 26. Retreatment hast the most favorable prognosis during which of the following? A.When the cause of failure is identified and is correctable☑ B.When the patient is asymptomatic C.When gutta-percha was used instead of paste D.When surgical microscope is used 27. Canals may be missed during treatment because of which of the following? A.Calcification B.Anomalous location C.Inadequate access D.All of the above 28. Radiographically, which of the following statements regarding canals that appear calcified are accurate? A.They are seldom able to be instrumented A.They have a diferent appearance than the surrounding dentn☑ B.They should be opened up with rotary rather than ultrasonic instruments C.All of the above 29. Pulp necrosis is most likely to occur after which of the following? A.Midroot fracture A.Intrusive luxaton☑ B.Concussion C.Complicated crown fracture 30. A luxated tooth should be splinted in which of the following situations? A.If the tooth is mobile after splinting B.Until the RCT is completed C.With the composite as close to the gingiva as possible D.All of the above 31. A pulp has been damaged and is inflamed because of deep caries and cavity preparation. What material placed in the floor of the cavity aids the pulp in resolving the inflammation? A.Calcium hydroxide B.Zinc oxide-eugenol C.Steroid formulation A.Non, there is no material that promotes healing☑ 32. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding gutta-percha points? A.They contain 40% to 50% pure gutta-percha B.They adhere to dentin when compacted C.They can be heat sterilized A.They are not compressible☑ 33. Piezoelectric, ultrasonic devices differs from magneto-strictive devices in which of the following?

A.The piezoelectric unit transfers more energy to the files☑ B.The piezoelectric unit produces heat their requires a coolant C.The piezoelectric unit uses a RispiSonic, SharperSonic, and TrioSonic file system

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D.The piezoelectric unit vibrates at 2 to 3 kHz

34. Percolation can cause periapical irritation of: A.Dead spaces B.Excess cement C.Unclean canal D.Egress of degraded tissue fluid into the periapex E.All of them 35. A good master cone will have a snug fit at the apical third by: A.Minimum of 4mm B.5mm C.0.5 to 1mm D.No specific length E.2mm 36. Post operative pain after obturation occur when: A.There is excess cement B.There is excessive force applied during lateral condensationpppoopoppii,p C.Patient fail to take analgesic after treatment 37. The most reliable factor that will help determine if canal is ready for obturation is: A.Tooth is asymptomatic and functional B.No foul odor C.Negative culture test result D.All of the choices 38. Appropriate time for obturation is: A.When the canal is free from hemorrhage B.When the canal has eased to exude tissue fluid C.When the tooth is symptomatic D.Before post cementation 39. The spreader reach is: A.2mm short of the working length B.The depth the spreader has penetrated during compaction C.Refers to the force exerted by the spreader during compaction

D.All of the them 40. Blood at the tip of the paper point removed from the root canal indicates A.Possible hematomal Page 5 of 14

B.Possible incomplete irrigation C.Possible incomplete instrumentation D.Possible root perforation☑ 41. Biologic rationale dictates: A.Overinstrumentation B.Underinstrumentation C.The working length stops at the apical constriction D.Partial pulp removal 42. Smooth broach is used in: A.Debridement B.Exploration C.Obturation D.All of the choices 43. This instrument is used with a grasping or pulling motion A.Smooth broach B.File C.Barbed broach D.All of the choices 44. The distance from the apical exit of the root canal up to the reference point on the crown of the tooth is referred to as: A.Root length B.Root canal length C.Computed working length D.All of these 45. EDTA stands for: A.Ethylaminotetracycline acid B.Ethyldiaminotetraacetic acid C.Ethyldiaminotetracycline acid D.All of the choiceso 46. Presence of lingering pain after the removal of the stimulus is an indication of: A.Irreversible pulpitis B.Reversible pulpitis C.Necrosis D.All of these 47. The access preparation for root canal treatment should be: A.As small as possible to conserve tooth structure B.Confined to the area where carious destruction occurs C.Extended to the full periphery of the pulp chamber to remove the overhanging enamel and dentin D.All of the these 48. In an infected root canal, the two most commonly found organism are: A.Staphylococcus and enterococci B.Lactobacilli and streptococci C.Streptococci and staphylococci A.All of them 49. Zinc oxide eugenol is ideal for root canal obturation because: A.It can be easily removed if necessary

B.It has antibacterial property C.None irritating to host tissue D.It is slow setting

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E.All of the above 50. Symptoms of internal resorption: A.Pain in one quick stab B.Constant unexplainable toothache C.Pulpal discomfort in the morning D.Completely asymptomatic or mild pain at tolerable level 51. From which of the following is the periodontal ligament derived? A.Dental sac B.Enamel organ C.Dental papilla D.Ephithelial root sheath E.Outer enamel epithelium 52. The calcified bodies sometimes found in the periodontal ligament are the best described as which of the following? A.Cementicles☑ B.Denticles C.Bone D.Enamel pearls E.Mineralized interstital tissue 53. Which group of fibers of the periodontal ligament is the first to offer resistance to movement of the tooth in an occlusal direction? A.Alveolar crest B.Horizontal C.Interradicular D.Oblique A.Apical☑ 54. The likelihood that oral bacteria play an important role in gingival inflammation is evidenced by which of the following? A.An increase in salivary hyaluronidase B.An increased number of bacteria in saliva C.An increase of neutralizing antibodies in saliva A.A reducton of infammaton with reducton of plaque☑ 55. The most likely source of bacteria found in diseased periodontal tissue is: A.Serum A.Saliva B.Subgingival plaque C.Supragingival plaque 56. The ephithelial rooth sheath (Hertwig) is characterized by: 1.The formation of cellrests in the periodontal ligament when the sheath’s function have been accomplished 2.Progressive involution, thereby aiding in actual tooth movement during eruption 3.The absence of a stellate reticulum and a stratum intermedium 4.The absence of mitotic ability and thus, stretching as the root grow A.1 and 3☑ A.1 and 4 B.2 and 3 C.2 and 4

57. Which of the following cell types may be found in the periodontal ligament? 1.Fibroclasts 2.Osteoblasts

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