Med Term Study Guide PDF

Title Med Term Study Guide
Author Michelle Ralleca
Course Medical Terminology
Institution University of Alabama in Huntsville
Pages 15
File Size 371.7 KB
File Type PDF
Total Downloads 104
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Study guide for in class exam...


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IN CLASS EXAM STUDY GUIDE – SPRING 2020 BYS 320, MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY 1. Omphalocele is a/an: a. Pregnancy out of place d. Herniation 2. Prefix meaning “all”: a. pan- b. para- c. per-

b. Antibodies made against normal tissue

d. auto-

3. Prefix meaning “new”: a. macro- b. para- c. neo-

c. Backward development

e. toto-

d. micro-

e. neuro-

4. Accented syllable in “hyperglycemia”: a. hy b. per c. gly d. cem e. ia 5. Accented syllable in “anterior”: a. an b. ter c. i d. or 6. Membrane surrounding the abdominal cavity: a. Mediastinum b. Diaphragm c. Pleura d. Pericardium 7. Carries bile into the duodenum: a. Cystic duct b. Portal vein c. Lymph duct

e. Peritoneum

d. Hepatic duct

e. Common bile duct

8. Simplest molecule which, when many are joined together in sequence, make up proteins: a. Lipase b. Amylase c. Glucose d. Bile e. Amino acid

9. Raised bumps on the tongue: a. Uvula b. Rugae c. Papillae

d. Myoma

10. Fats are stored in this location: a. Adipose b. Steatorrhea c. Lipase

d. Lipolysis

11. Glossoplasty: a. Surgical repair of the roof of the mouth b. Surgical repair of the tongue c. Prolapse of the palate

12. Correctly spelled: a. epitheleal b. epithelial 13. Correctly spelled: a. venule b. vanule

c. epithelal

c. venuel

e. Sphincter

e. Glycogenolysis

d. Overgrowth of gum tissue e. Cleft palate

d. epetheliul

d. vainule

e. epethelial

e. venyule

14. inter-: a. between

b. above

c. below

d. within

e. surrounding

15. The coronal plane divides the body into _______ portions. a. anterior and posterior b. superior and inferior c. top and bottom 16. Excessive development: a. Hypoplasia b. Dystrophy 17. Treatment: a. -therapy

b. -genic

c. Achondroplasia

c. -plasty

d. -osis

d. right and left

d. Morphology

e. Hypertrophy

e. -stasis

18. Accented syllable in “hypertrophy”: a. hy b. per c. tro d. phy 19. Correct spelling is a. arteriosclerosis b. arteriosklerosis

c. arteerosclerosis

d. arteereosclerosis

20. The __________ end of the thigh bone (femur) joins with the knee cap. a. lateral b. distal c. superior d. prone e. ventral 21. The __________ plane divides the body into upper and lower portions. a. transverse b. superior c. lateral d. inferior e. proximal 22. Correct spelling is a. colestasis b. cholestasis 23. Correct spelling is a. glossotomy b. glosotomy

c. kolistasis

d. chowlestasis

c. glossutomie

d. glossotomie

24. Accented syllable in “achondroplasia” a. a b. chon c. dro d. plas e. ia 25. Hematoma: a. Incision of the kidney e. Red blood cell

b. Tumor of the liver

c. Blood mass

26. An abnormal condition of platelets: a. Anemia b. Erythrocytosis c. Thrombocytosis 27. Pertaining to under the liver: a. Subrenal b. Transdermal

c. Transhepatic

d. Inflammation of the liver

d. Leukemia

d. Subhepatic

28. The lungs are found in the ____________ cavity: a. cranial b. abdominal c. thoracic d. epigastric 29. Prefix meaning “half”: a. hemi-

e. Leukocytosis

e. Hepatoma

e. right hypochondria! b. bi- c. dia-

30. Spelled correctly a. diarrhea b. diarhhea

d. tri-

e. duo-

c. dyarhea

d. diarrhia

31. Accented syllable in “exophthalmos”: a. ex b. oph c. thal d. mos 32. Lip: a. Cholecyst/o

b. Celi/o

33. Correct spelling: a. hepatomeagaly

c. Cholelith/o

b. hepatomegaly

d. Choledoch/o

c. hepatomegly

e. Cheil/o

d. hepatomegale

34. Both children in the picture are the same age. The child to the right is exhibiting which condition: a. leukoplakia b. Graves disease c. achondroplasia d. exophthalmos

35. The correct spelling of the pathology a. ilius b. ileus c. ileum d. illeus

36. Esophageal varices: a. New opening of the esophagus into the stomach birth b. Esophagus is dilated c. Esophageal sphincter will not relax

37. Opposite of -ectasis: a. -stenosis b. -ptysis

c. -spasm

d. -stasis

38. Fluid removed in an abdominocentesis: a. Cholecystolith b. Dyspepsia c. Hemostasis

d. Esophagus does not open to the stomach at e. Twisted veins around the esophagus

e. -lysis

d. Ascites

e. Paracentesis

39. The thoracic vertebrae are inferior to the ____________ vertebrae. a. cervical b. lumbar c. coccygeal d. sacral 40. The term distal describes a direction a. toward the back of the body b. away from the point of attachment body d. away from the midline

c. toward the lower end of the

Matching Section a. syndrome b. parathyroid c. prodrome!

d. relapse e. remission!

41. Next to a gland found in the throat Parathyroid 42. Symptoms which precede the actual disease Prodrome 43. Group of symptoms commonly occur together Syndrome 44. Period when symptoms lessen Relapse a. stomatitis b. cholelithiasis

c. palatopharyngoplasty d. lithogenesis!

45. Inflammation of the mouth Stomatitis 46. Formation of stones Lithogenesis 47. Surgical repair of the roof of the mouth and the back of throat Palatopharyngoplasty a. adenopathy b. iatrogenic

c. diagnosis d. cystoscope!

48. Pertaining to being “caused by a doctor” Iatrogenic 49. Instrument used to view the bladder Cystoscope 50. Literally means “condition of knowing completely” Diagnosis 51. Pathology of a gland Adenopathy a. erythrocyte b. basophil c. lymphocyte 52. Will increase in number in viral infections: Neutrophil 53. Contains no nucleus: Erythrocyte 54. Removes dead cells from tissue: Monocyte

d. neutrophil e. monocyte!

55. Which of these gives the correct order of the organs in the gastrointestinal tract? Note that the structures may not be connected to each other, but should correctly come in order from left to right a. esophagus…. pharynx…. cecum…. jejunum… ileum b. oral cavity…. stomach…. ileum…. ascending colon… rectum c. jejunum.… sigmoid colon…. transverse colon… duodenum…. anus d. stomach…. duodenum…. ileum…. transverse colon…. ascending colon e. duodenum…. esophagus…. jejunum…. cecum…. rectum 56. In the word “retroperitoneal”, what kind of word part is “retro”?! a. prefix b. suffix c. word root d. combining vowel 57. In the word “choledochojejunostomy”, how many combining vowels are present? a. none b. one c. two d. three e. four 58. In the figure, the region labeled #5 is _______________ and the one labeled #4 is _______________. a. right hypochondriac…..left inguinal b. left iliac… right lumbar c. right epigastric…umbilical d. left hypochondriac…right iliac e. left lumbar… hypogastric 59. The region which is superior to the right lumbar region is a. hypogastric b. right hypochondriac c. right iliac d. umbilical 60. If a patient is stabbed at the star’s location, which region will be cut? a. hypogastric b. right lumbar c. left hypochondriac d. umbilical e. epigastric 61. Burning sensation of pain: a. Analgesia b. Cephalgia

c. Anesthesia

d. Causalgia

e. Dysesthesia

62. Space between nerve cells is called the: a. Subdural space b. Subarachnoid space

c. Ventricle

d. Synapse

e. Stimulus

63. Part of the nerve that has receptors for neurotransmitters: a. Gyrus b. Dendrites c. Synapse d. Microglia e. Oligodendroglia 64. Disorder of reading, writing, and learning is: a. Epilepsy b. Apraxia c. Bradykinesis d. Neurasthenia

e. Dyslexia

65. Condition of no nervous sensation: a. Analgesia b. Anencephaly c. Anesthesia d. Huntington disease e. Alzheimer disease 66. The urine-producing unit within the urinary system is the a. renal artery b. nephron c. renal pelvis d. hilum 67. Vesic/o is defined as a. glomerulus b. meatus

c. bladder

d. kidney

68. A non-protein nitrogen waste product excreted in the urine a.glucose b. cholesterol c. protein d. creatinine e. cysteine 69. Incision of the perineum during childbirth: a. Episiotomy b. Colpotomy c. Perineoplasty

d. Laparotomy

e. Perineorrhaphy

70. Physician’s effort to turn the fetus during delivery: a. Involution b. Retroflexion c. Retroversion d. Cephalic version 71. Painful menstrual periods: a. Menorrhea b. Menorrhagia

c. Metrorrhagia

d. Dysmenorrhea

72. Pieces of the inner lining of the uterus are ectopic: a. Endocervicitis b. Ectopic pregnancy c. Endometriosis 73. Foreskin: a. Perineum

b. Phimosis

c. Prepuce

74. Produced by the Leydig cells: a. Luteinizing hormone b. hCG 75. Undescended testicles: a. Anorchism b. Phimosis

d. Glans penis

c. Testosterone

c. Epispadias

e. Presentation

d. Cystadenocarcinoma

e. Scrotum

d. Estrogen

d. Cryptorchism

76. Benign prostatic hyperplasia is characterized by: a. Adenocarcinoma of the prostate c. Hydrocele b. Overgrowth of glandular tissue d. Urinary incontinence

e. Progesterone

e. Orchiotomy

e. Varicocele

77. Sterilization procedure: a. Vasectomy b. Circumcision

c. Orchiotomy

78. Pertaining to muscles and nerves: a. Myoneural b. Neuroanastomosis

d. Left orchiectomy

c. Myelogram

d. Meningomyelocele

e. Polyneuritis

79. Elevated portions of the cerebral cortex are called: a. Sulci b. Plexuses c. Gyri d. Ventricles e. Glial cells 80. Uremia means the same as: a. Azotemia b. Hematuria

c. Dysuria

d. Cystitis

e. Hemorrhage

81. Hernia of the tube connecting the kidney and urinary bladder: a. Herniorrhaphy b. Urethrocele c. Ureterocele d. Urethroileostomy 82. Swelling; fluid in tissues: a. ademia b. edema c. edemia

e. Urethrostomy

d. edeema

83. Nephrosclerosis: a. Hardening of blood vessels in the kidney b. Loss of protein in the urine c. A test of kidney function

d. Prolapse of the kidney e. Excess fluid in the kidney

84. Premature separation of the placenta from the endometrium: a. Ectopic pregnancy b. Placenta previa c. Abruptio placentae

d. Pseudocyesis

85. A woman who has had 3 miscarriages and 2 live births: a. G3P2 b. G5P2 c. G2P3 d. G5P3 e. G2P5 86. Brings blood to the glomerulus: a. juxtaglomerular apparatus b. efferent arteriole

87. Protein in the urine: a. albuminuria b. albuminurea

c. albumenuria

88. Scanty sperm production: a. olagospermia b. oliospermia

c. oligospermia

89. Pertaining to the essential cells of an organ: a. parenchymal b. parenchymel c. parencyhmal

90. Manner of walking:

c. afferent arteriole d. peritubular capillaries

a. gate

b. gaite

c. gait

91. Localized collection of pus a. abcess b. abscess c. absess

d. absces

92. Part of the vulva: a. Uterine cervix b. Fallopian tubes

93. Adnexa uteri: a. Fetus and embryo b. Chorion and amnion

c. Labia majora

d. Ovaries

e. Endometrium

c. Ovaries and fallopian tubes d. Vagina and uterine cervix

94. What the ovarian follicle becomes after ovulation: a. Endometrium b. Corpus luteum c. Amnion 95. Respiratory disorder in the neonate: a. Pyloric stenosis b. Hydrocephalus

d. Chorion

e. Placenta

c. Hyaline membrane disease

d. Melena

96. The term “episiotomy” is built from which of the following combinations of word parts? a. WR + S b. P + WR + S c. WR + CV + S d. P + WR + CV + S 97. The patient, who had recently been treated for a urinary tract infection, presented with fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, and lumbar pain. She was diagnosed with an inflammation of the renal pelvis and kidneys, also known as a. pyelonephritis b. polycystic kidney disease c. hydronephrosis d. ureteritis 98. The physician told the patient who had a drooping kidney that it was necessary to attach the kidney back in place by performing a _____. a. nephrolysis b. renal transplant c. nephrotripsy d. nephropexy 99. The term “endometrium” is built from which of the following combination of word parts? a. P+WR+S b. WR+WR+CV+S c. WR+CV+S d. P+WR+CV+S 100. Inability to speak: a. Apraxia b. Dysplasia 101. Fainting: a. Shingles

c. Aphasia

b. Hypoesthesia

c. Ataxia

d. Aphagia

d. Syncope

e. Ataxia

e. Palsy

102. The part of the word where your voice will place the accent when you say “gravida” is a. gra b. vi c. da 103. The part of the word where your voice will place the accent when you say “androgen” is a. an b. dro c. gen

104. The part of the word where your voice will place the accent when you say “pseudocyesis” is a. pseu b. do c. cy d. es e. sis 105. Which of these gives the correct order of the organs in the urinary tract? Note that the structures may not be connected to each other, but should correctly come in order from left to right a. Bowman capsule….renal pelvis…. calyx…. ureter…urinary meatus b. bladder….distal convoluted tubule….urethra…. ureter… calyx c. calyx.… renal pelvis…. ureter… urethra…. bladder d. proximal convoluted tubule…. calyx... ureter…. urethra…. urinary meatus e. collecting tubule…. urethra….ureter…. distal convoluted tubule…. Bladder 106. A sphygmomanometer is used to: a. assess breathing capacity c. record electrical activity in the heart b. measure blood pressure d. listen to heart and lung sounds. 107. Petechiae: a. Pinpoint hemorrhages

b. Vegetations

c. Dilation of large vessels

108. “Patent” is the opposite of: a. Deoxygenated b. Oxygenated c. Open

d. Closed

109. Incision of a vein: a. Phebotomy b. Phlebitis

c. Phlebotomy

110. Correct spelling: a. fibrilation b. filbrilation

c. fibrillation

111. Correct spelling: a. hemmorhoids b. hemmorrhoids

c. hemorrhoids

112.Correct spelling: a. absess b. absecess

d. absces

c. abscess

113.Correct spelling: a. rhinoplasty b. rrhinoplasty

c. rinoplasty

d. Defects in heart septa

e. Half closed

d. hemorhhoids

d. rhinnoplasty

114.Increases in number during an allergic reaction: a. macrophages b. basophils c. erythrocytes d. eosinophils

115. Blood vessel that carries oxygen-poor blood from heart to the lungs: a. Pulmonary vein b. Pulmonary artery c. Aorta d. Inferior vena cava

116.Located between the left upper and lower chambers of the heart:

a. Mitral valve

b. Tricuspid valve

c. Aortic valve

117.Resting phase of the heartbeat: a. Septum b. Diastole c. Tachycardia

d. Pulmonary valve

d. Systole

e. Pacemaker

118.Vasoconstriction: a. Narrowing of a valve b. Inflammation of a capillary c. Blockage of a heart valve d. Inflammation of a vein e. Narrowing of a blood vessel 119.Space between the lungs in the chest: a. Pleura b. Peritoneum c. Mediastinum

d. Trachea

120.Pulmonary parenchyma: a. Trachea b. Pharynx c. Alveoli

d. Red blood cells

121.Removal of the voice box: a. Larnygectomy b. Pharnygectomy

c. Laryngectomy

e. Heart

e. Cilia

d. Esophagectomy

e. Pharyngectomy

122.A clinician will use a stethoscope to perform_______ on a patient’s chest. a. a V/Q scan

b. bronchoscopy

123.Type of pneumoconiosis: a. Anthracosis b. Pyothorax

c. auscultation

c. Atelectasis

124.The voice will sound hoarse: a. Anosmia b. Dyspnea c. Dysphonia 125.Collapsed lung: a. Pneumonitis b. Endotracheostomy

d. thoracentesis

d. Pneumonia

d. Tachypnea

c. Thoracotomy

126.Spitting up blood from the lungs: a. Pleurodynia b. Hematemesis c. Hemothorax

e. sprirometry

e. Epiglottis

e. Hypoxia

d. Atelectasis

d. Hydrothorax

e. Hemoptysis

127.Which of the following includes a visual examination? a. Tracheostomy b. Spirometry c. Thoracentesis d. Bronchoscopy 128.Hypocapnia: a. Increased oxygen

b. Decreased oxygen

c. High carbon dioxide

e. Auscultation

d. Low carbon dioxide

129.White blood cell with no granules; numbers increase in viral infections: a. Lymphocyte b. Eosinophil c. Neutrophil d. Erythrocyte e. Basophil 130.Pigmented molecule produced from hemoglobin when red blood cells are destroyed: a. Serum b. Albumin c. Globulin d. Plasma e. Bilirubin

131.An undifferentiated blood cell in the bone marrow is called a: a. Granulocyte b. Segmented cell c. Hematopoietic stem cell d. Thrombocyte 132. Immature cell that eventually produces platelets: a. Thrombocyte b. Monoblast c. Segmented d. Erythroblast

e. Lymphocyte

e. Megakaryoblast

133.Sideropenia causes deficient production of hemoglobin: a. Pernicious anemia b. Iron-deficiency anemia c. Aplastic anemia

d. Hemolytic anemia

134.Failure of blood cell production due to absence of formation of any cells in the bone marrow: a. Pernicious anemia b. Iron-deficiency anemia c. Aplastic anemia d. Hemolytic anemia 135.Excessive deposits of iron throughout the body: a. Polycythemia vera b. Iron-deficient anemia c. Purpura

d. Hemochromatosis

136.Swelling; fluid leaks out from the vascular space into tissue spaces: a. Petechiae b. Edema c. Ecchymoses d. Dyscrasia e. Autologous transfusion 137.Spongy, porous bone tissue is also called: a. Yellow marrow b. Bone fissure c. Compact bone 138.The shaft of a long bone is called a/an: a. Olecranon b. Periosteum c. Osteoclast 139.Poor formation of bone: a. Osteolysis b. Osteodystrophy

d. Bone sinus

d. Diaphysis

c. Decalcification

e. Cancellous bone

e. Epiphysis

d. Myelopoiesis

e. Osteoclasis

140. Operation performed to fix the knee cap into place in order to stabilize the joint: a. Patellapexy b. Arthroscopy c. Osteoclasis d. Laminectomy e. Metacarpectomy 141. Exaggerated lateral curve of the spinal column: a. Lordosis b. Scoliosis c. Kyphosis d. Spina bifida

e. Pubic symphysis

142.A broken bone whose edges can be seen outside the body is a ______ fracture: a. Comminuted b. Greenstick c. Impacted d. Compression e. Compound 143.Surgical repair of a joint: a. Arthroplasty b. Fasciectomy 144.Pain of many muscles: a. myositis b. polymyalgia

c. Achondroplasia

c. multimyelodynia

d. Tenorrhaphy

e. Arthrosis

d. metamyodynia

145.Bluish color of a baby’s skin could be caused by a/an _____ defect in the baby’s heart. a. thrombotic b. aneurysmal c. septal d. electrical


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