Sample/practice exam 2016, questions and answers PDF

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Biological Psychology Practise MCQs

1)The principle of natural selection proposes that certain characteristics will become more prevalent in a species to the extent that these: a) are associated with multiple genetic mutations b) inhibit reproductive behaviours c) increase the likelihood that an organism will successfully reproduce d) impair adaptation to the local environment 2) Genetic mutations involve: a) accidental changes in the chromosomes of sperms and eggs b) poor adaptation to the environment c) improved reproductive success d) only beneficially changes in the characteristics of an organism 3) Who was the first to link thoughts and emotions with the brain? a) Descartes b) Aristotle c) Hippocrates d) Galen 4) Descartes would have been most comfortable with which of the following statements? a) the universe is a mental construction b) the body is a hallucination generated by the mind c) the body is made of matter, the mind is not d) everything is made of matter and energy 5) What is this part of the brain is referred to as? a) anterior b) superior c) rostal d) posterior 6) What is the basal ganglia is responsible for? a) movement b) emotion c) visual perception d) memory 7) An important function of the corpus callosum is to: a) channel sensory information and relay centre’s b) program the movements of the hands and fingers c) interconnect the cerebral hemispheres d) control the release of neurohormones from the pituitary

8) Roughly, how many cells are there in a brain? a) 100 billion b) 10 billion c) 1000 billion d) 1 billion 9) Which of the following is the cerebellum responsible for? a) emotion b) learning c) coordination d) memory 10) What do positron emission tomography scans measure? a) metabolic activity only b) electrical activity only c) both types of activity d) none of the above 11) Who was the earliest case study? a) Mark Smith b) Phillip May c) Phineas Gage d) HM 12) When using photosensitive proteins to stimulate the brain, what type of light stimulates the protein ChR2 and inhibits the protein NpHr? a) yellow light and blue light b) red light and yellow light c) blue light and red light d) blue light and yellow light 13) If only one MZ twin is diagnosed with a disorder, this is called… a) concordant b) cordant c) discordant d) disconcordant 14) What do antisense oligonucleotides do? a) block production of enzymes encoded by genes b) block production of proteins encoded by genes c) block release of proteins d) block release of enzymes 15) What is the myelin sheath made from? a) 20% Lipid and 80% protein b) 50% lipid and 50% protein c) 100% lipid d) 80% lipid and 20% protein

16) What is meant by the term ‘hyperpolarised’? a) a hyper polar bear b) a more positive membrane potential (e.g.+40mV) compared to the resting potential c) a more negative membrane potential compared to the resting potential d) the resting potential 17) What supports the myelin sheath in the CNS and PNS? a) Schwann cells in CNS and oligodendrocytes in PNS b) microglia in CNS and astrocytes in PNS c) astrocytes in CNS and microglia in PNS d) oligodendrocytes in CNS and Schwann cells in PNS 18) Pharmokinetics is the process to which drugs are… a) absorbed b) distributed c) metabolised and excreted d) all of the above 19) Which of the following is the fastest route of administering drugs? a) intraperitoneal injection b) intravenous injection c) intramuscular injection d) intracerebral injection 20) What is meant by binding affinity? a) the degree of the chemical attraction between a ligand and a receptor b) the degree of how much the ligand and receptor repel each other c) a term for the chemical attraction between a neurotransmitter and receptor d) a term for the how much the neurotransmitter and receptor repel each other 21) Cross tolerance is… a) exposure to one drug causing tolerance to other drugs b) exposure to one drug causing increased sensitivity to other drugs c) no tolerance to any drugs d) none of the above 22) Why do drug users usually prefer heroin to morphine? a) it is a better drug b) the effects are different c) the effects are more rapid d) drug users don’t prefer heroin 23) Relapse of drugs involves activation of which of the following systems? a) nigrostriatal dopamine pathway b) mesolimbic system c) mesocortical system d) mesopental system

24) The prefrontal cortex is involved in … a) memory b) balance c) executive functions d) emotion 25) What plays an important role in positive reinforcement in drug addiction? a) the release of enzymes b) the production of proteins c) the production of enzymes d) the release of dopamine 26) Amphetamine works by… a) having a mild (temporary) effect on the inhibitory enzymes of dopamine, norepinephrine and serotonin b) increases the release of dopamine, norepinephrine and serotonin c) inhibits reuptake of dopamine, norepinephrine and serotonin into the terminals d) all of the above 27) Which of the following statements is true? a) agonist therapy stimulates the same receptors as the drug addiction would b) agonist therapy involves blocking the receptor from being activated by the drug addiction c) agonist therapy involves a foreign protein d) all of the above 28) Delusions are… a) interrupted thoughts b) false beliefs c) perceptions of stimuli which are not present d) lack of motivation 29) What is anhedonia? a) a negative symptom of schizophrenia b) inability to obtain pleasure from normally pleasurable things c) perceptions of stimuli which are not present d) both a and b 30) The prevalence rate for schizophrenia is… a) 10% b) 0.1% c) 1% d) none of the above 31) What is the diathesis-stress model? a) a model to show the stages of stressfulness in an individual with schizophrenia b) a model explaining the link between the environment and genes in schizophrenia c) both a and b d) none of the above

32) What type of drugs are monoamine oxidase inhibitors and tricyclic antidepressants? a) monoaminergic agonists b) monoaminergic antagonists c) acetlycholinergic agonists d) acetlycholinergic antagonists 33) The anterior cingulate cortex is involved with… a) memory b) learning c) coordination d) rewards/pleasure 34) Which of the following brain regions is associated with mood defective disorders? a) amygdala b) prefrontal cortex c) anterior cingulate cortex d) all of the above 35) Which chromosome region did Hanna et al. (2002) suggest being associated with obsessive compulsive disorder? a) chromosome 6 b) chromosome 9 c) chromosome 8 d) chromosome 7 36) How are paranoid delusions thought to be caused? a) increased activity of acetlycholinergic input into to amygdala b) decreased activity of acetlycholinergic input into to amygdala c) increased activity of dopaminergic input into the amygdala d) deceased activity of dopaminergic input into the amygdala 37) What is cingulotomy? a) a treatment which inhibits the release of dopamine b) a treatment which destroys fibre bundles c) a treatment which inhibits the release of serotonin d) a treatment which destroys synapses 38) Which of the following is true of Rene Descartes? a) Rene was trained in medicine. b) Rene was considered to be an eminent philosopher. c) He viewed the mind as separate from the body. d) All of the above are correct. 39) An important function of the corpus callosum is to a) channel sensory information to the thalamic relay centers b) program the movement of the hands and fingers c) interconnect the cerebral hemispheres d) control the release of neurohormones from the pituitary.

40) Which of the following are true regarding the action potential (AP)? a) The AP is always of the same amplitude and duration in a given cell. b) The AP is an all-or-none signal. c) The AP is a brief electrical signal. d) All of the above are correct. 41) A key advantage of salutatory conduction is that: a) more sodium ions have to be pumped out of the cell after an action potential b) myelin allows the nerve cell to recycle neurotransmitter molecules c) less transmitter is required to send a message across the next synapse d) myelin speeds up the velocity at which an axon can conduct an action potential 42) Which of the following sensory systems show ipsilateral organization? a) Vision and audition. b) Somatosensory. c) Vision and pain. d) Olfaction and taste. 43) The ________ route of drug administration requires caution because this route is most likely to result in accidental overdose. a) Oral b) topical c) intravenous d) intramuscular 44) Administration of a drug that binds with a postsynaptic receptor, but does not open ion channels would be termed a(n) a) direct agonist. b) Ligand. c) Direct antagonist. d) Indirect pheromone. 45) The motor symptoms of Parkinson’s disease… a) result from neurodegeneration of the corpus callosum. b) Result from formation of MPTP from dopamine in synaptic vesicles. c) Can be treated using L-DOPA. d) Can be treated using drugs that activate MAO in dopamine neurons. 46) ________ is a skull landmark which also serves as a reference point for stereotaxic surgery. a) Lambda. b) The optic chiasm. c) Bregma. d) The junction of the parasagittal sutures.

47) The relative activity of immediate early genes is useful in that… a) these genes rarely change their activity level. b) Immediate early genes fluoresce when active. c) Immediate early genes control glucose utilization. d) The presence of an early gene product in the cell nucleus is a marker of neuron activation. 48) Stages of sleep are easily distinguished by: a) changes in respiration b) the quality and quantity of dreams c) changes in the electrical activity of the brain d) changes in consciousness 49) The metabolism of glycogen increases the brain levels of ________, which in turn promotes ________. a) GABA; slow-wave sleep b) GABA; REM sleep c) adenosine; slow-wave sleep d) adenosine; wakefulness 50) What type of cycle is the sleep stages cycle? a) infradian b) ultradian c) circadian d) circannual 51) Which stage is characterised as a ‘deep sleep’? a) stage 1 b) stage 2 c) stage 3 d) stage 4 52) What is the most common sleeping disorder? a) insomnia b) narcolepsy c) sexsomnia d) night terrors 53) Insomnia can be caused by… a) worry b) pain c) over-use of sleeping pills d) all of the above 54) How may food containing tyramine make you sleep less? a) it doesn’t – just a myth b) they slowly release energy c) they are high in sugar d) they release norepinephrine – a brain stimulant

55) The disorder Narcolepsy is… a) random and frequent attacks of sleep b) not being able to breath whilst asleep c) sleeping with eyes open d) homicidal acts during sleep 56) In humans, what is the cause of narcolepsy? a) Orexin neurons have been destroyed by the nervous system – unable to regulate sleep and wakefulness. b) A genetic mutation leading to the absence of the receptor for orexin. c) Both A and B. d) Over-use of sleeping pills. 57) Can narcolepsy be treated? a) Yes – with sleeping pills b) Yes – with amphetamines c) Sometimes – depends on the individual d) No 58) Which of the following statements best describes the theory of repair and restoration for sleep? a) If an animal has few predators, they will sleep longer = conserve energy b) growth hormone is secreted during S4 = tissue growth and cell repair c) the rebound effect d) none of the above 59) What does the evolutionary hypothesis suggest REM sleep is for? a) cell repair b) tissue growth c) rest for the body d) brain development 60) What occurs if the VLPA is destroyed/stimulated? a) Destroyed = sleep occurs; stimulated = insomnia b) destroyed = narcolepsy; stimulated = sleep occurs c) destroyed = insomnia; stimulated = sleep occurs d) destroyed = insomnia; stimulated = narcolepsy 61) What is the VLPA? a) a bundle of GABAergic neurons b) a bundle of tissue cells c) a site of hormone release d) all of the above 62) What occurs if the ARAS is stimulated? a) sleep b) arousal c) hormones are released d) all of the above

63) Orexin is… a) a neurotransmitter b) responsible for stabilising the flip-flop switch c) a substance which keeps the VLPA inhibited d) all of the above 64) Which of the following statements best describes the term zeitgebers? a) stimuli which resets the biological clock b) they are responsible for circannual rhythms c) a patch of tissue d) all of the above 65) Which of the following is the SCN responsible for? a) secretion of adrenaline b) secretion of melatonin c) inhibition of sleep d) arousal 66) The prenatal development of the external male genitalia requires the presence of… a) estradiol b) melatonin c) alpha-fetoprotein d) dihydrotestosterone 67) Which of the following biological factors determines the genetic sex of a foetus? a) The gonads of the foetus. b) A single gene on the X chromosome. c) The hormones produced by the pituitary during foetal development. d) The father’s sperm. 68) At the age of 6 weeks, the foetus is… a) a specific sex b) able to develop into either sex c) mostly likely male d) most likely female 69) At the age of 8-12 weeks of the foetus, the lack of testosterone causes… a) external male sex organs to develop b) male internal system to break down c) external female organs to develop d) both B and C 70) The lack of androgen receptors on the X chromosome is the syndrom e… a) persistent Mullerian duct b) androgen insensitivity c) congenial adrenal hypothesis d) none of the above

71) Normally males have… a) higher androgen levels than oestrogen b) higher oestrogen then androgen levels c) both equal amounts d) it varies per person – individual differences 72) What are the primary sex characteristics? a) gonads, internal/external sex organs b) gonads, wide hips and facial hair c) internal sex organs and gonads d) gonads and external sex organs 73) Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone and adrenocorticotropic hormone have an effect on what? a) the brain b) maturation in males only c) maturation in females only d) maturation in the genitals 74) Testosterone causes male (non-primate) sexual behaviour; which of the following are examples of this? a) intromission b) pelvic thrust c) ejaculation d) all of the above 75) The oestrogen cycle controls the female (non-primate) sexual behaviour; which of the following are examples of this? a) receptivity b) provocativity c) effects on the male d) all of the above 76) What effect does a gonadotrophin-releasing hormone antagonist have on young males? a) increases the sexual behaviour b) reduces sexual intercourse c) it only effects females d) A and C 77) What do pheromones do? a) Carry similar messages from the secreting gland to target tissue within an organism. b) Carry similar messages between organisms of the same species. c) Both of the above. d) Depends on what the message is.

78) What is the congenital adrenal hypothesis? a) It involves genetically female individuals (XX). b) There is an excessive amount of androgen. c) A theory for sexual orientation. d) All of the above. 79) The medial preoptic area (MPA) is an essential role in… a) male sexual behaviour b) female sexual behaviour c) both male and female sexual behaviour d) male hormone release 80) The process of ________ regulates the fluid that bathes our cells. a) Positive feedback b) homeostasis c) hemostasis d) osmogenesis 81) The obsession with food noted in anorexia may be related to… a) elevated levels of CCK in the brain. b) A deficiency of NPY in the brain. c) Elevated levels of NPY in the brain. d) A failure of menstruation brought on by excessive exercise 82) Where is the short-term energy store located? a) muscle and liver tissue b) fat cells c) fat tissues d) pancreas 83) What is glucagon? a) a hormone which changes glycogen into glucose when glucose levels are low b) a hormone which changes glucose into glycogen when glucose levels are high c) a hormone involved in regulating hunger d) a hormone involved when fasting 84) What are adipocytes made from? a) tissue b) triglycerides c) insulin d) all of the above 85) What are the two types of metabolism? a) adsorptive and composive b) composive and fasting c) adsorptive and fasting d) fasting only

86) What is the concept of hunger? a) a drive to consume food in response to a biological need to eat b) a drive to consume food in response to a psychological need to eat c) a drive to consume food in response to a biological AND psychological need to eat d) none of the above 87) What is Ghrelin? a) a hormone b) a substance secreted by the gastric mucosa in the stomach c) a substance that increases food intake and decreases fat metabolism d) all of the above 88) In obese individuals, levels of Ghrelin are… a) higher only b) higher and more responsive c) lower only d) lower and less responsive 89) What do nutrient detectors do? a) send signals from the liver to the brain when stores are high b) send signals from the liver to the brain when stores are depleted c) both A and B d) send signals from the kidney to the brain when stores are depleted 90) Satiety is… a) being hungry – the act of eating b) not being hungry but eating anyway c) being full but continuing to eat – cannot stop d) being full after a meal – suppression of hunger and inhibition of eating 91) Cognitive signals are a type of episodic signals, and they are… a) learnt associations and expectations b) sensory features which have an immediate effect on satiation c) a type of post-ingestive signal d) a type of post-adsorptive signal 92) Cholecystokinin is… a) secreted in response to food in upper intestine b) a substance which slows gastric motility c) a substance which increases feelings of satiety d) all of the above 93) Insulin, ghrelin and leptin are all examples of… a) tissue cells b) tonic signals c) biological factors which cause individuals to eat d) all of the above

94) Which of the following is involved in the neural control of food intake? a) the lateral hypothalamus b) the brain stem c) the nucleus of solitary tact d) all of the above 95) Lesions to the ________ cause eating to stop. a) the lateral hypothalamus b) the brain stem c) the nucleus of solitary tact d) all of the above 96) The ________ controls chewing and swallowing. a) the lateral hypothalamus b) the brain stem c) the nucleus of solitary tact d) all of the above 97) In classical conditioning, an organism … a) is able to recognize objects by the sounds they make. b) Identifies and categorizes objects. c) Shows a species-typical behaviour in response to a previously unimportant stimulus. d) Learns the consequences of a specific behaviour. 98) Memories for a stimulus or an event can be retained in ________ which lasts for ________. a) Perceptual memory; milliseconds b) short-term memory; a few seconds c) the dorsal stream; day d) long-term memory; days 99) Which of the following would be expected to prevent anterograde amnesia due to anoxia? a) Prolonging the duration of the anoxia. b) Administration of an NMDA receptor antagonist into the hippocampus. c) Prior damage to the amygdala. d) Administration of an NMDA receptor agonist into the hippocampus. 100) What is meant by the term potentiation? a) decrease in the strength of nerve impulses b) increase in the strength of nerve impulses c) an increase in the amount of operant conditioning d) a decrease in the amount of classical conditioning 101) The three main areas of the hippocampus are… a) DG, CA3 and CA1 b) CA1, CA2 and CA3 c) IG, CA2 and CA1 d) IG, CA1 and CA3

102) What two types of cells did Ranke claim are in the CA1 and CA3? a) Theta and spike cells b) beta and complex spike cells c) theta and complex spike cells d) beta and spike cells 103) On average, an adults brain weighs… a) 1,400g b) 700g c) 1,000g d) 2,000g 104) The planning and execution of movements is a function performed by association cortex in which cortical lobe? a) Occipital. b) Frontal. c) Temporal. d) Insular.

BIOLOGICAL PSYCHOLOGY PRACTISE MCQ ANSWERS 1) C 2) A 3) C 4) B 5) D 6) A 7) C 8) A 9) C 10) A 11) C 12) D 13) C 14) B 15) D 16) C 17) D 18) D 19) B 20) A 21) A 22) C 23) B 24) C 25) D 26) D 27) A 28) B 29) D 30) C 31) B 32) A 33) D 34) D 35) B 36) C 37) B 38) D 39) C 40) D 41) D 42) D 43) C 44) C 45) C

46) 47) 48) 49) 50) 51) 52) 53) 54) 55) 56) 57) 58) 59) 60) 61) 62) 63) 64) 65) 66) 67) 68) 69) 70) 71) 72) 73) 74)...