Sample/practice exam 2016, questions and answers PDF

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1. David Farrington and his colleagues (e.g. Farrington, 2002) in the Cambridge Study have since the 1960s been trying to reveal factors which contribute to: a) The development of sexual offending behaviour. b) The development of delinquent behaviour. c) The development of antisocial behaviour. d) The development of drug misuse behaviour. 2. Which of the following might be considered a distal antecedent for violent behaviour? a) Impulsivity, and neurological problems. b) Poor school attainment and harsh parenting. c) The tendency to mix with other people also engaged in violent acts. d) Hostile attributions and substance misuse. 3. Violent Crime overall in the Crime Survey for England and Wales in 2013-14 was responsible for what proportion of crime? a) Nearly 40% b) Nearly 30% c) Nearly 20% d) Nearly 10% 4. The CSEW 2013-14 revealed what proportion of crime was attributable to domestic violent crime: a) 17.5% b) 19.5% c) 21.5% d) 23.5%? 5. Which of the following are commonly held beliefs about those who commit sexual offences? a) They are all adult men. b) They are untreatable. c) They are all unknown to their victims. d) All of the above.

6. In Terri Moffit’s categorisation of types of offender (e.g. Moffit, 1993), which of the following would be more likely with adolescence-limited offenders? a) They tend to offend alone. b) They have healthy personalities. c) They tend to have poor relationships with peers and teachers. d) They show greater diversity in their offending behaviour. 7. Which of the following would not be considered a static risk for offending behaviour? a) Gender. b) Social circumstances. c) Age. d) Criminal History. 8. Objective measures as forms of assessment are sometimes considered attractive because… a) They are less susceptible to socially desirable responding. b) They are deemed to be hard to ‘fake’. c) They reveal something about underlying psychological deviance or interests. d) All of the above. 9. In profiling, the homology assumption leads the assessor to believe that: a) The more similar two offenders seem to be, the more similar will their offences be. b) The more similar two crimes are, the more we know about the perpetrators c) The more similar the environments in which crimes occur, the more similar will be the offences. d) That offenders tend to commit similar crimes over time. 10. Andrews and colleagues (e.g. Andrews et al. 1990) amongst others have identified which of the following to be important in Offender Behaviour Programmes (OBP): a) Staff need to be committed, enthusiastic and the management supportive. b) The OBP must target attitudes and values that support offending. c) The Programme must use problem solving and social learning. d) All of the above.

11. What is required in order for an OBP to be ‘accredited’ by the National Offender Management Service? a) It must be delivered in all prisons. b) It must be evidence-based. c) It must last no longer than one year. d) It must be accompanied by a community-based programme to follow up offenders on release. 12. What is the primary aim of offender behaviour programmes? a) To improve the life chances of individuals when they are released. b) To improve the mental health of individuals. c) To reduce the chances of that individual reoffending. d) To promote social cohesion within prisons. 13. Episodic memories are… a) Individuals memories of someone else’s experiences. b) Individuals memories of own personal experiences. c) Individuals memories of how to perform skills. d) All of the above. 14. What percentage of cases does eyewitness misidentification occur? a) 17% b) 91% c) 72% d) 64% 15. Acquisition and encoding is the… a) learning phase. b) Information that is stored. c) Information that is retrieved. d) None of the above. 16. Which of the following affects the encoding of information? a) Exposure duration. b) Crime seriousness. c) Presence of a weapon. d) All of the above.

17. What is bottom-up processing? a) Information that we interpret ourselves. b) What we actually see. c) Both A and B. d) Processing using concepts. 18. A mental framework of familiar situations is called… a) A schema. b) A concept. c) A script. d) All of the above. 19. What does Ebbinghaus’ forgetting curve demonstrate? a) The longer the interval between storage and retrieval, the more information is remembered. b) The shorter the interval between storage and retrieval, the more information is forgotten. c) The longer the interval between storage and retrieval, the more information is forgotten. d) The shorter the interval between encoding and storage, the more information is forgotten. 20. When does retrieval failure occur? a) The memory trace is not in memory anymore. b) The memory trace is in memory still and can be accessed. c) The memory trace is in memory still but cannot be accessed. d) Both A and C. 21. Recall and recognition are two types of _______. a) Encoding. b) Retention. c) Acquisition. d) Retrieval. 22. Closed and leading questions are… a) Optimal interviewing strategies. b) Non-optimal interviewing strategies. c) Ways of storing information. d) Both A and C.

23. What does the cognitive interview include? a) Report everything, mental reinstatement, changing of the interviewer and reverse order. b) Report main parts only, mental reinstatement, change perspectives and reverse order. c) Report everything, mental reinstatement, change perspectives and reverse order. d) The interviewer building a relationship with the interviewee. 24. The phonological similarity effect argues… a) Similar words are easier to recall in STM. b) Similar words are easier to recognise in LTM. c) Similar words are harder to recognise in LTM. d) Similar words are harder to recall in STM. 25. How can transience be reduced? a) Deep encoding. b) Deep processing. c) Deep thinking. d) Memory practice. 26. Absent mindedness is seen in ______. a) All ages. b) Elder individuals more. c) Younger individuals more. d) Both A and B. 27. How is blocking different from transience? a) It isn’t any different. b) Blocking involves attention. c) Information has been encoded and is still stored in blocking. d) None of the above. 28. Suggestibility involves… a) Distortions. b) Blockage. c) Bias. d) All of the above.

29. Individuals who are feeling anxious… a) remember other anxious memories less. b) Remember other anxious memories more. c) Cannot remember anything. d) It differs from person to person. 30. What is persistence governed by? a) Thalamus. b) Brain stem. c) Amygdala. d) Hippocampus. 31. In real cases of abuse, children are often interviewed ___ to ___ times before court appearance. a) 5, 7. b) 1, 4. c) 3.5, 11. d) 6.5, 12. 32. What is free recall better to use for in children? a) Who was there. b) What happened. c) Who was there and what happened. d) None of the above. 33. Open questions are less effective with… a) Elderly individuals. b) Adolescents. c) Pre-schoolers. d) They are effective in everyone. 34. Closed questions often lead to what? a) A drop in accuracy. b) A change in response c) A Correct answer. d) Both A and B.

35. Inverted faces are … a) Nicer to look at than normal faces. b) Harder to recognise than normal faces. c) Easier to recognise than normal faces d) Just as easy to recognise. 36. What is configuration? a) The relationship between two criminals. b) The relationship between different viewpoints of a face. c) The relationship between different components of a face. d) None of the above. 37. When faces are lit from the bottom, they are… a) Easier to recognise. b) Harder to recognise. c) No difference from other lighting. d) Harder for some people, easier for others. 38. There is an effect for better ID of own race faces – what is this effect called? a) Own race effect. b) Other race effect. c) The race effect. d) All of the above. 39. Gudjonsson found that __% to __% of interrogations results in confessions. a) 57%, 62% b) 10% 85% c) 30%, 60% d) 40%, 76% 40. Which of the following is more prone to unreliable confessions? a) Individuals with low intellectual abilities. b) Individuals with abnormal mental states. c) Individuals with mental disorders. d) All of the above.

41. An individual wants to gain notoriety, what may they do? a) Make a voluntary false confession. b) Make a coerced false confession. c) Refuse to talk to the interrogator. d) Answer yes to all of the questions. 42. What is the difference between coerced-internalised false confessions (CIFC) and coerced-compliant false confessions (CCFC)? a) CIFC = agree with interrogator to achieve goal. CCFC = agree with interrogator as believe them (publically and privately). b) CIFC = agree with interrogator as believe them (publically and privately). CCFC = agree with interrogator to achieve goal. c) CIFC = agree as they want to protect someone else. CCFC = agree as they feel guilty about previous events in their life. d) CIFC = agree as they feel guilty about previous events in their life. CCFC = agree as they want to protect someone else. 43. An individual is more susceptible to persuasiveness if… a) They have a logical and realistic coping strategy. b) They resist the interrogator. c) They have a passive and helplessness coping strategy. d) All of the above. 44. How many people are on the jury system in England and Wales? a) 12 b) 15 c) 6 d) 20 45. The foreman is more likely to be an individual who… a) Is white. b) Is male. c) Has prior experience on the Jury. d) All of the above. 46. From 2014-2015, overall crime has… a) Increased 7%. b) Decreased 7%. c) Stayed the same. d) Increased 3%.

47. ‘Crime is adolescent limited’ – what does this statement mean? a) 20% of crime committed is by under 18 year olds, 40% of crime is committed by 18-40 year olds. b) 5% of crime committed is by under 18 year olds, 80% of crime is committed by 18-40 year olds. c) 10% of crime committed is by under 16 year olds, 40% of crime is committed by 16-50 year olds. d) 20% of crime committed is by under 20 year olds, 30% of crime is committed by 18-60 year olds. 48. Lone offenders are more likely to be part of what group? a) Adolescent-limited. b) Life course persistent. c) Abstainers. d) Primary anti-socials. 49. What is the difference between primary and secondary anti-socials? a) Primary = criminal behaviour starts in young age. Secondary = criminal behaviour starts in adolescence. b) Primary = drug use before criminal behaviour. Secondary = criminal behaviour before drug use. c) Primary = criminal behaviour before drug use. Secondary = drug use before criminal behaviour. d) Primary = drug use starts in young age. Secondary = drug use starts in adolescence. 50. Which of the following crimes have decreased from 2014-2015? a) Drug offence. b) Violent crime. c) Sexual offences. d) All of the above. 51. Individuals that never become involved in crime are called… a) Abstainers. b) Absters. c) Absents. d) Apparenters.

52. ____% of adult women have been raped or sexually abused. a) 5% b) 10% c) 20% d) 16% 53. To be diagnosed as a psychopath, you must score high than _____ in UK. a) 20 b) 30 c) 10 d) 32 54. What is the difference between inductive and deductive techniques in profiling? a) Inductive = use forensic evidence. Deductive = use expert knowledge of the profiler. b) Inductive = use crime scene analysis. Deductive = use expert knowledge of the profiler. c) Inductive = use expert knowledge of the profiler. Deductive = use crime scene analysis alone. d) Inductive = use expert knowledge of the profiler. Deductive = use crime scene analysis, offence related information and forensic evidence. 55. Dynamic risks are… a) Unchangeable. b) Large. c) Changeable. d) Small. 56. ____ can be used for detox drug for opiates is… a) Methadone. b) Buprenorphine. c) Dihydrocodeine. d) All of the above 57. Sexual castration involves… a) SSRIs. b) Hormones. c) Removing amygdala. d) Both A and B.

58. What is the most effective programme? a) CBT. b) Sexual offender programmes. c) Drug programmes. d) Offender programmes. 59. What factors predict re-offending? a) Age. b) Gender. c) Social Status. d) All of the above. 60. How many of the sexual offenders are strangers to their victims? a) 50% b) 8% c) 15% d) 38%

Forensics Practice MCQs ANSWERS 1. B 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. B 8. D 9. A 10. D 11. B 12. C 13. B 14. C 15. A 16. D 17. B 18. A 19. C 20. D 21. D 22. B 23. C 24. D 25. B 26. D 27. C 28. A 29. B 30. C 31. C 32. B 33. C 34. D 35. B

36. C 37. B 38. B 39. D 40. D 41. A 42. B 43. C 44. A 45. D 46. B 47. A 48. B 49. C 50. A 51. A 52. B 53. B 54. D 55. C 56. D 57. D 58. A 59. D 60. B...